Are you preparing for Odisha Judicial Services (OJS) preliminary examination? Here are few objective type multiple choice questions which will help you in clearing the exam!
1. An ordinance of the Governor:
(a) has the same force as the law made by the State Legislature until approval by the Legislature
(b) is more extensive than the law made by the State Legislature
(c) is much narrower than the law made by the State Legislature
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (a)
2. The President of India can nominate:
(a) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(b) 10 members to Lok Sabha
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
(d) 1/4th of the members of Rajya Sabha.
Ans. (c)
3. Who wrote ‘India Wins Freedom’?
A. Subhas Bose
B. Maulana AbulKalam Azad
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Ans: B
4. Identify the Himachali who was captain of Indian Hockey team that won gold medal at 1964 summer Olympics at Tokyo?
A. Darshan Singh
B. Prithipal Singh
C. Charanjit Singh
D. Gurbaksh Singh
Ans: C
5. Who among the following is known as the ‘Father of Hindi Khadi Boli’?
A. Amir Khusrau
B. Malik Muhammad Vidyasagar
C. Kabir
D. Abdul Rahim-Khan-i-Khanan
Ans: A
6. Intentional omission to apprehend on the part of a public servant bounded by law to apprehend person under sentence of a court of justice if under sentence of death is dealt under
A. Section 222 of IPC
B. Section 223 of IPC
C. Section 224 of IPC
D. Section 225 of IPC
Ans: A
7. Scientists from which country have created the world’s first ‘water-wave laser’ that emits a beam through the interaction of light and water waves:
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) India
(d) USA.
Ans. (b)
8. A light combat aircraft developed by Aeronautics Development Agency (ADA), a part of DRDO is:
(a) Tejas
(b) Lakshya
(c) Hunter
(d) Jaguar.
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The law declares by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all Courts within the territory of India.
II. The general principles of law laid down by the Supreme Court is applicable to every person including those who were not parties to that order.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
10. Subject to the provision any law made by the Parliament, the Supreme Court may from time to time, with the approval of the President, make rules for regulating generally the practice and procedure of the Court including –
A. Rules as to the persons practicing before the Court
B. Rules as to the granting of bail
C. Rules a§ to stay of proceedings
D. All the above
Ans. (D)
11. Which one of the following statement is not true of conspiracy as a tort?
A. There must be combination of five or more persons
B. The combination must be for the motive of causing harm to the plaintiff
C. If the motive of the combination is to further their own causes there could be no conspiracy
D. If there was lack of combination there would be no conspiracy even if their acts are similar and causing harm to the plaintiff
Ans: A
12. Which of the following statements will hold true for section 8 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
I. A son of the interstate who was in the womb at the time of the death of the interstate through subsequently born, is to be deemed for the purpose of the succession as if bom before the interstate
II. For cases falling under section 8, son who has divided his property is same as one who has remained with the joint family
III. A step son1 that is a son of previous marriage of the wife of the interstate is entitled to succession as per Class I of the schedule
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Ill and I
D. I, II and III
Ans. A
13. Which of the following statements is false regarding wives for the purpose of Section 8 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. By her second marriage widows forfeits the interest taken by her in her husband’s estate, and it passes to the next heir of her husband as if she was dead
B. Conversion of a Hindu widow to another religion is not a ground for divesting her of property inherited by her from her husband
C. If the husband dies pending divorce, wife would not loses her right to succeed to the husband’s property
D. A woman leaves her husband and remarries without divorce taking place. She will inherit her husband’s property
Ans. A
14. In a joint family consisting of a father and son, when the son died survived by a childless widow and the father died thereafter, his wife dying with him, leaving behind four daughters, what will be the share of each daughter in the property?
A. 1/5th
B. 1/6th
C. 1/8th
D. 1/4th
Ans. B
Practice Test
15. Control over subordinate Courts is vested in the _________
A. Chief Minister
B. High Court
C. Governor
D. Supreme Court
Ans. (B)
16. Article 246 of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of_______ powers as between the Union and the State legislatures with reference to the different lists in the seventh schedule.
A. Legislative
B. Executive
C. Judiciary
D. Financial
Ans. (A)
17. It shall be the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations to the President as to
I. the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective share of such proceeds.
II. the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. only I
B. only II
C. both (A) and (B)
D. neither A nor B
Ans. (C)
18. Consider the following elements:
I. Infringement of a legal right
II. Legal damage
III. Any damage
IV. Existence of a legal right
Right to claim damages in tort would arise only if:
A. 1 and 2 are present
B. 1, 2 and 4 are present
C. 1, 3 and 4 are present
D. 3 and 4 are present
Ans: B
19. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 gives the cases when specific performance may be granted as a part of a contract?
A. s. 8
B. s. 12
C. s. 15
D. None of these
Ans: D
20. A, police officer, tortures B to induce him to point out where certain stolen property is deposited.
A. A has committed an offence under Section 322, IPC
B. A has committed an offence under Section 328, IPC
C. A has committed an offence under Section 330, IPC
D. A has committed an offence under Section 334, IPC
Ans: C
21. Supreme Court has recommended in multiple cases that of marriage made a ground for divorce.
A. Irretrievable breakdown, should not be
B. Open lifestyle, should not be
C. Conversion to another religion by one party, should not be
D. Irretrievable breakdown, should be
Ans: D
22. ISRO has launched how many satellites in a single mission on 15th February, 2017:
(a) 102
(b) 103
(c) 104
(d) 105.
Ans. (c)
23. While determining ‘sufficient means’ of a person:
(a) property exempt from attachment in execution of a decree is to be excluded
(b) property exempt from attachment in execution of a decree is not to be excluded
(c) property exempt from attachment in execution of a decree may or may not be excluded
(d) none of the above.
24. A permission to sue as pauper once granted, under Order XXXIII, Rule 9 of CPC:
(a) can never be withdrawn
(b) can be withdrawn generally
(c) can be withdrawn under certain circumstances only
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (c)
25. An attempt to commit adultery_______ be distinguished from adultery, and________ of itself be sufficient ground for granting relief under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
A. Cannot, is
B. Must, is
C. Must, will not
D. Cannot, will not
Ans: C
26. Cruelty per se___________ ground for relief by way of divorce prior to amendment of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 by Amending Act of 1976,___________ a ground for relief of judicial separation.
A. Was a valid, but not
B. Was not a valid, neither was it
C. Was not a valid, but was only
D. Was a valid, and also a valid
Ans: C
27. Which of the following statements is true for wakif under Hanafi law?
A. He can reserve only part of the income of the wakf property for his maintenance during his life
B. He can reserve all of the income of the wakf property for his maintenance during his life
C. He can revoke any wakf created by him anytime during his life
D. All of the above statements are false
Ans: B
28. The defendants published in their newspaper a photograph of one Mr ‘C’ and miss ‘X’ together with the words. “Mr ‘C’, race-horse owner, and Miss ‘X’, whose engagement has been announced”. The information on which the defendants based their statement was derived from Mr ‘C’. In fact, Mr ‘C’ and Mrs ‘C’ were not living together Mrs ‘C’ sued the defendant for defamation, the innuendo being that Mr ‘C’ was not her husband but lived with her in immoral cohabitation. The defendants would be:
A. Liable because a publisher is responsible for the consequence of any publication and the plaintiff’s innuendo is established
B. Not liable because they genuinely believed the news to be true and so published the same
C. Liable because they had been negligent in publishing the news
D. Not liable because they had verified the veracity of the news from Mr ‘C’ before publishing the same
Ans: D
29. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, overrides s. 19 (b), Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. s. 50, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
B. s. 51, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
C. s. 52, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
D. None of these
Ans: C
30. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that specific performance of contracts connected with trusts is enforceable?
A. s. 12
B. s. 11
C. s. 10
D. None of these
Ans: B
31. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that a contract to sell or let property by one who has cannot be specifically enforceable at his instance?
A. s. 15
B. s. 11
C. s. 17
D. None of these
Ans: C
(a) Article 29(1)
(b) Article 29(2)
(c) Article 30(1)
(d) Article 30(2)
Ans. (c)
33. Writ of Mandamus means:
(a) By what authority a person is holding the public post
(b) Action of subordinate Court in violation of the principle of natural justice
(c) To direct performance of legal duty by public authorities
(d) To quask the proceedings of quasi-judicial body.
Ans. (c)
34. Which Amendment has been passed to include the Tamil Nadu Act on 69 per cent reservation of seats for backward classes in government jobs and educational institutions in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution:
(a) Seventy-fifth Amendment Act
(b) Seventy-sixth Amendment Act
(c) Seventy-seventh Amendment Act
(d) Seventy-eighth Amendment Act.
Ans. (b)
35. Which is correctly matched:
(a) “Do or Die” – Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) “Swaraj is my Birthright” – Mahatma Gandhi
(c) “Give me blood, I will give you freedom” – Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) “Independence through non-violence must be our aim” – B.G. Tilak.
Ans. (c)
36. Dandi (as in Gandhiji’s Dandi March) is the name of a :
(a) village
(b) poet
(c) music form
(d) dance form
Ans. (a)
37. The first women’s university in India was established by:
(a) Maharishi Charak
(b) Maharishi Govindacharya
(c) Mahatama Nirlepdas
(d) Maharishi Dhondo Keshav Karve.
Ans. (d)
38. IST is:
(a) Difference of time between two places
(b) Difference of time between two states
(c) Uniform time adopted by all places in India
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
39. “Chandrayan II” and Indo-Russian Mission to be launched in year 2011 relates to:
(a) Landing a rover in Saturn
(b) Landing a rover in moon
(c) Landing a rover in Mars
(d) Landing a rover in Jupiter.
Ans. (b)
40. In which among the following cases the prisoners are entitled to rights under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India and these articles operate within the prison:
(a) Sunil Batra’s case
(b) Nandini Satpathy’s case
(c) Meneka Gandhi’s case
(d) Indira Nehru Gandhi’s case.
Ans. (a)
41. ‘Ponzi Schemes’ refers to as a fraudulent investment operation that pays return to its investors from:
1. Their own money
2. The money paid by investors
3. Profit earned by the individuals
4. Profit earned by organisation running the operation.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (a)
42. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) relate to:
(a) The World Bank
(b) The Reserve Bank of India
(c) The world Trade Organisation
(d) The International Monetary Fund
Ans. (d)
43. Fiscal Policy in India is formulated by:
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The Finance Ministry
(d) The Securities and Exchange Board of India.
Ans. (b)
44. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched:
(a) Precedent: Legislature
(b) Precedent: Jurist
(c) Precedent: Judge
(d) Precedent: Agreement.
Ans. (c)
45. Kleptomania is a mental illness which makes someone:
(a) To steal things
(b) To feel unhappy and sad all the time
(c) To develop suicidal tendencies
(d) Violent and aggressive
Ans. (a)
46. Rickets is caused by the deficiency of:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Iodine.
Ans. (c)
47. Which tree has no wood:
(a) Banana
(b) Apple
(c) Lemon
(d) Mango.
Ans. (a)
48. In which of the following states of India is Article 31 of the Indian Constitution applicable even after its deletion by the 44th Amendment Act?
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. A
49. Sub-clause (1) A of Article 31A of the Indian Constitution applies in which of the following contingencies?
A. Acquisition of an estate
B. Extinguishment of rights in an estate
C. Modification of rights in an estate
D. All of them
Ans. D
50. Which of the following conditions is/are required for the application of sub-clause B of Article 31A of the Indian Constitution?
I. The taking over must be for a limited and not be an indefinite period of time or amount to acquisition
II. It must be either in the public interest or in order to secure the proper management of the property, which must be objectively established.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
51. Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “Social Engineering” which means:
(a) Greatest happiness to greatest number of people
(b) Balancing of competing interests in society
(c) Changes in the concepts and function of the State
(d) That law has its source in the general consciousness.
Ans. (b)
52. Which of the following measures should be taken when an economy is going through inflationary pressures:
1. The direct taxes should be increased
2. The interest rate should be reduced
3. The public spending should be increased
Select the correct answer.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2.
Ans. (a)
53. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prohibits employment of children in factories:
(a) Article 246
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 24.
Ans. (d)
54. According to RTE (Right to Education) Act, how many percentages of seats is mandatory to be reserved for economically backward children:
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 40.
Ans. (b)
55. ‘BRIC’ which was the organisation of 4 nations namely Brazil, Russia, India and China has now become ‘BRICS’ which is the fifth nation included in it:
(a) South Korea
(b) South Africa
(c) Singapore
(d) Spain.
Ans. (b)
56. Member of the Committee on Economic, social and Cultural Rights are elected by the:
(a) States Parties to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
(b) General Assembly on the recommendation of the United Nations Secretary General.
(c) Economic and Social Council on the recommendation of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights.
(d) Economic and Social Council.
Ans. (a)
57. United Nations came into force on:
(a) 24th October 1945
(b) 24th October 1948
(c) 24th October 1950
(d) 24th October 1947.
Ans. (a)
58. Which country is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world:
(a) America
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Europe.
Ans. (b)
59. Which is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India:
(a) Rigid Constitution and Supremacy of Constitution
(b) Quasi-federal structure
(c) Committed Judiciary
(d) Distribution of powers.
Ans. (a)
60. ‘What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly’. The doctrine relates to:
(a) pith and substance
(b) implied powers
(c) ancillary power
(d) colourable legislation.
Ans. (d)
61. Which of the following is true about s. 16, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Gives grounds to defence based on plaintiff’s conduct
B. The Court has regard to circumstances outside the contract and looks to the conduct of the plaintiff
C. This section imposes personal bar
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
62. The competent authority to remove judicial officers in a state is the _________
A. Governor
B. High Court
C. Chief Minister
D. President
Ans. (A)
63. __________ is the Executive Head of the National Capital territory of Delhi.
A. Lieutenant Governor
B. Governor
C. Chief Minister
D. Speaker
Ans. (A)
64. Which of the following bodies conducts the election to the Municipality?
A. State Election Commission
B. Election Commission of India
C. Chief Minister office
D. High Court
Ans. (A)
65. Union list contains_____________ subjects.
A. 99
B. 94
C. 90
D. 60
Ans. (A)
66. Who determines the required qualifications for appointment as members of the Finance Commission and the manner in which they are selected?
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister
Ans. (B)
67. Nothing in Article 25 of the Indian Constitution shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the state from making any law:
I. Regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
II. Providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Which of the above statements is/are found to correct?
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
68. Under Article 26 of the Indian Constitution, subject to public order, morality and health every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right:
A. To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose
B. To manage its own affairs in matters of religion
C. To own and acquire movable and immovable property
D. All of them
Ans. D
69. Which of the following statements regarding Right of religious denomination under is/are found to be correct?
I. This Article does not take away the right of the State to acquire property belonging to a religious denomination.
II. This Article does not create rights in any denomination or a section which it never had.
III. Article 25(1) states that all persons are entitled to freedom of religion.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
Ans. C
70. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution the right to compulsory acquisition of property was mentioned before its deletion?
A. Article 30(1)
B. Article 31
C. Article 32
D. Article 30(2)
Ans. B
71. Who was “first Indian President” to visit Russia after disintegration of USSR:
(a) APJ Abdul Kalam
(b) Shankar Dayal Sharma
(c) K.R. Narayanan
(d) Venkatraman.
Ans. (a)
72. One of the first advocates of a separate Muslim State in the pre-independence Indian subcontinent was:
(a) Maulana Azad
(b) Mohd. Ali Jinnah
(c) Mohd. Iqbal
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
Ans. (c)
73. The power of the Court to take note of subsequent events is well-settled and undoubted. But which of the following must condition for the same?
A. the subsequent event should be brought promptly to the notice of the Court
B. it should be brought to the notice of Court consistently with rules of procedure enabling Court to take notice of such events and affording the opportunity of meeting or explaining such events
C. the subsequent event must have a material bearing on right to relief of any party
D. all of them
Ans. D
74. Admissions can be broadly categorised into:
A. Judicial
B. Extra-judicial
C. either (A) and (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
75. The principle of res judicata is embodied in relation to suits under which of the following sections?
A. Section 11 C. P.C
B. Section 12 C. P.C
C. Section 13 C. P.C
D. Section 14 C. P.C
Ans. A
76. Which of the following deals with the power to require personal attendance of officer of corporation in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 12, Rule 1
B. Order 10, Rule 9
C. Order 29, Rule 3
D. Order 17, Rule 10
Ans. C
77. Which of the following is true of a District Judge who functions as a Claims Tribunal?
I. He is under the administrative control of the High Court
II. He is subordinate to the High Court under s. 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure
III. The order passed by the Tribunal is revisable under s. 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure
IV. All of these
A. I, III
B. II, IV, V
C. I, IV, V
D. All of these
Ans. D
78. Pre-suit interest is preferable to substantive law and can be sub-divided as:
I. Where there is stipulation for the payment of interest at a fixed rate
II. Where there is no stipulation for the payment of interest at a fixed rate
III. Both (A) and (B)
IV. None of these
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. IV, V
D. All of these
Ans. D
79. A civil revision, at the instance of a litigant is maintainable on satisfaction of which of the following circumstances cumulatively?
A. Impugned order amounts to a case decided. Such order must have been passed by any court subordinate to such High Court. Such order must not be an appealable.
B. There must be allegation of jurisdictional error
C. If the impugned order has been passed in favour of the revision-petitioner then that would have finally disposed of the suit or other proceedings
D. All of these
Ans. D
80. Where a person commits a public nuisance:
A. He is liable to criminal prosecution under the Indian Penal Code, 1860
B. He may be proceeded against under s. 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure
C. He is liable to damages in a suit at the instance of a private individual who suffers special damage by reason of the nuisance
D. All of these
Ans. D
81. Admissions can be of which of the following kinds?
A. Admissions in pleading
B. Admissions by agreement
C. Admissions by notice
D. All of these
Ans. D
82. Where was the 5th Edition of the Rastriya Sanskrit Mahotsav, 2017 held:
(a) Tawang (Arunachal Pradesh)
(b) Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh)
(c) Dimapur (Nagaland)
(d) Dispur (Assam).
Ans. (a)
83. Who is the first batsman to score a triple hundred in a T20 match at any level:
(a) Nathu Singh
(b) Mohit Ahlawat
(c) N. Kaur Patel
(d) R. Lamba.
Ans. (b)
84. ‘Dadaab’ the world’s largest refugee camp is located in which country:
(a) Egypt
(b) Kenya
(c) Hungary
(d) Nigeria.
Ans. (b)
85. B transferred three houses to A and asked him to sell and invest them for the benefit of D. D is major and competent to contract. Which of the following statements will hold true under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. D cannot elect to take property in its original character
B. A can choose to hand over property to D in its original character, or by selling it and investing it for benefit of D
C. D can elect to take property from A in its original character
D. D cannot elect to transfer the property to C in its original character
Ans: C
86. Which of the following sections of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 deal with the provisions for conversion of perishable property?
A. Section 15
B. Section 16
C. Section 17
D. Section 18
Ans: B
87. The word ‘person’ used in section 4, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 includes which of the following?
A. Number of persons such as joint Hindu family
B. A varying number of beneficiaries who may from time to time become interested in the trust property
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
88. Which of the following is a ‘firm’ not?
A. A person or legal entity
B. Juristic persona to be taken cognizance of as such by the law such as idol or corporation
C. Mere collective name
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
89. The ‘firm’ used in section 4, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 refers to which of the following?
A. Collective name for the same members of it
B. Individual name for the different members of it
C. Collective name for the different members of it
D. None of these
Ans: C
90. Under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, in case a discretionary power conferred on a trustee is not exercised by the trustee reasonably or/and in good faith _____.
A. The power will lapse, and trustee will not have authority to use it in future
B. The trustee will be liable under the Code of Criminal Procedure
C. The power may be controlled by a principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction
D. The power may be controlled by a principal Criminal Court of original jurisdiction
Ans: C
91. The members of a joint Hindu family are a body of individuals who come under the definition of ‘person’ as defined in which of the following sections of the General Clauses Act?
A. Section 2(39)
B. Section 2(39)
C. Section 2(39)
D. Section 2(39)
Ans: D
92. A dissolution of a concerned formed by those firms is not a dissolution of partnership within the meaning of which of the following Articles of the Stamp Act?
A. Article 43-B
B. Article 44-B
C. Article 45-B
D. Article 46-B
Ans: D
93. The use of the word ‘person’ in Clause (c) of S. 2 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 indicates that:
A. The person must be given an extended sense to include governments
B. The person must not be given an extended sense to include governments
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
94. The use of the word person in Section 2 (c) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 indicates:
A. just a human being
B. it must be given extended sense to include governments
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
95. The Usurious Loans Act, 1918 empowers the Court to relieve again exorbitant interest where:
A. the interest is excessive
B. the transaction was substantially unfair
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
96. The High Court does not generally revise orders passed under which of the following provisions of the C.P.C?
A. Order 18, Rule 60
B. Order 19, Rule 61
C. Order 20, Rule 62
D. Order 21, Rule 63
Ans. (D)
97. The time taken in bona fide prosecuting a civil revision petition can be deducted under which of the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1963?
A. Section 11(1)
B. Section 12(1)
C. Section 13(1)
D. Section 14(1)
Ans. (D)
98. Which of the following is the effect of Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. In order to ascertain the date of expiration of the prescribed period, the days excluded from operating by way of limitation have to be subtracted from what is primarily the period of limitation prescribed
B. In order to ascertain the date of expiration of the prescribed period, the days included from operating by way of limitation have to be added to what is primarily the period of limitation prescribed
C. In order to ascertain the date of expiration of the prescribed period, the days excluded from operating by way of limitation have to be added to what is primarily the period of limitation prescribed
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
99. Section 15, Limitation Act, 1963 has combined the provisions of which of the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1908?
A. Section 13
B. Section 15
C. Section 16
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
100. In which of the following respects Section 15, Limitation Act, 1963 is enlarged?
A. Section 15(2) provides for exclusion of time taken in obtaining the consent of the Union Government for institution of suits in certain cases
B. In case of insolvency or liquidation the period between the filing of the petition for winding up and adjudication and the date of expiry of 3 months from the order of appointment of receiver or liquidator can be excluded in the case of suits filed by the receiver or liquidator
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
101. Section 15(2), Limitation Act, 1963 provides for exclusion of time taken in obtaining the consent of the Union Government for institution of suits in which of the following cases?
A. Suits under Section 86, C.P.C
B. Suits under Section 87, C.P.C
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
102. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states the contracts, which are not specifically enforceable?
A. s. 14
B. s. 15
C. s. 16
D. None of these
Ans. A
103. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 gives the cases when specific performance may be granted as a part of a contract?
A. s. 8
B. s. 12
C. s. 15
D. None of these
Ans. D
104. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides for cases where specific performance can be had, of contracts with a variation?
A. s. 18
B. s. 17
C. s. 13
D. None of them
Ans. A
105. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that a contract to sell or let property by one who has cannot be specifically enforceable at his instance?
A. s. 15
B. s. 11
C. s. 17
D. None of these
Ans. C