Questions and Answers on Indian Penal Code

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Questions and answers on Indian penal code especially compiled for UPSC, Civil Services, IAS, Administrative Services, and Indian Judicial Services Exam!

1. When did the Indian Penal Code received the Governor General’s assent?

A. October 3, 1850

B. October 5, 1852

C. October 6, 1860

D. October 7, 1865

Ans: C

2. Wrongful confinement in secret is dealt under

A. Section 344 of IPC

B. Section 345 of IPC

C. Section 346 of IPC

D. Section 347 of IPC

Ans: C

3. After the submission of the draft of the Indian Penal Code in 1837, who reviewed the draft Code?

A. Sri Barnes Peacock

B. Sri Rajgopalachari

C. Sir. J. W. Colvile

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

4. The right to prosecution under the Indian Penal Code:

A. is affected by the provisions of other statutes

B. is not affected by the provisions of the other statutes

C. is not applicable under the provisions of the Companies Act

D. is not applicable in the areas of Mikir Hills

Ans: B

5. Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation is dealt under

A. Section 374 A of IPC

B. Section 375 A of IPC

C. Section 376 A of IPC

D. Section 377 A of IPC

Ans: C

6. All are true except one concerning the duty of the Court in regard to the interpretation of the words of ambiguous import in a penal statute?

A. The court must ascertain if the offence charged is within the meaning of the words of the statute

B. If the only reasonable way of construing a penal statute without stretching its legal language is one, which goes against the accused, then it must be fully upheld in its entirety.

C. It is the duty of the Court to interpret words of ambiguous import in a broad and liberal sense

D. In case of penal statute is uncertain or ambiguous or at capable of two interpretations, the benefit of the ambiguity should go to the accused

Ans: B

7. Intercourse by public servant with woman in his custody is dealt under

A. Section 373 B of IPC

B. Section 374 B of IPC

C. Section 375 B of IPC

D. Section 376 B of IPC

Ans: D

8. Extortion by threat of accusation of an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years is dealt under

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Ans: D

9. Mens rea involves:

A. crimes of basic intent

B. crimes of speculative intent

C. crimes of specific intent

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

10. The accused booked two cases containing heroin on a flight from City A to City B and then to City C. On reaching City C, he did not collect the heroin. He was charged with being knowingly concerned in the fraudulent evasion of restrictions on importation of cannabis under customs and excise laws. He was held guilty of the offence charged as he has brought about the importation by deliberate actions committed with a guilty intent. The accused took the victim to a hut and killed him striking over his head. In order to make it an accidental death the dead body was rolled over a cliff. The medical report revealed that death was due to exposure and it was not caused in the hut.

A. The accused is guilty of murder in both the cases

B. The accused is not guilty in the first case however is guilty of manslaughter in the second case

C. The accused is not guilty in neither of the cases

D. The accused is guilty in the first case and not in the second case

Ans: B

11. Fraudulent removal or concealment of property, etc to prevent distribution among creditors is dealt under

A. Section 421 of IPC

B. Section 422 of IPC

C. Section 423 of IPC

D. Section 424 of IPC

Ans: A

12. C and F and F invited C to have a fix of his heroin. Each filled his own syringe and injected each other several times during one night. Next morning F died on the question of causation:

A. C must convicted of manslaughter

B. C must not be convicted of manslaughter

C. C can be convicted for the possession of heroin only

D. C is neither guilty of possessing heroin nor the death of F

Ans: A

13. The accused in order to evade arrest was holding D against her will and was using her body as a shield. He fired a shotgun at the police officer who returned the fire in which D was killed. Which the following should be the first step of the Court on the question of causation?

A. The Court must immediately convict the accused

B. The Court must direct the jury to be sure that the accused fired the first shot

C. The police officer must be convicted

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

14. Assisting concealment or disposal of stolen property knowing it to be stolen is dealt under

A. Section 411 of IPC

B. Section 412 of IPC

C. Section 413 of IPC

D. Section 414 of IPC

Ans: D

15. All except one is false statement about legal mens rea:

A. it refers to mental element necessary for the particular crime

B. the mental element may be either intention to do the immediate act or bring about the consequences

C. intention or recklessness as to the elements constituting the actus reus

D. intention can always be satisfactorily defined

Ans: D

16. Mischief is dealt under

A. Section 426 of IPC

B. Section 427 of IPC

C. Section 428 of IPC

D. Section 429 of IPC

Ans: A

17. To which of the following, the law of presumption applies?

A. volenti non fit injura

B. mens rea

C. de minimus non curat lex

D. none of them

Ans: B

18. What is the position of the mens rea in its purely technical sense for the offences under the Indian Penal Code?

A. it holds the same position as it does under the English Criminal Law

B. it has no application

C. it has indirect application

D. both (B) and (C).

Ans: D

19. Lurking house trepass or house-breaking is dealt under

A. Section 452 of IPC

B. Section 453 of IPC

C. Section 454 of IPC

D. Section 455 of IPC

Ans: B

20. Punishment for subjecting a married woman to cruelty is dealt under

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498AofIPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans: C

21. Which of the following is a type of legal fault that necessarily does not involve a mental state?

A. Negligence

B. Intention

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: A

22. Which of the following introduced Section 10-C of the IPC?

A. Amendment Act 10 of 1972

B. Amendment Act 30 of 1974

C. Amendment Act’ 40 of 1976

D. Amendment Act 42 of 1980

Ans: B

23. Presumption of culpable mental state is a part of:

A. Section 7-C of the IPC

B. Section 8-C of the IPC

C. Section 9-C of the IPC

D. Section 10-C of the IPC

Ans: D

24. Death or grievous hurt caused by one of several persons jointly concerned in house breaking by night, etc is dealt under

A. Section 45 8 of IPC

B. Section 459 of IPC

C. Section 460 of IPC

D. Section 461 of IPC

Ans: C

25. Section 10-C was used in which of the following cases?

A. Devaki v. State (Kerala 2000)

B. Devamani v. State (Madras 1983)

C. Devraj v. State of Punjab (1992)

D. Devilal v. State (Delhi administration 1986)

Ans: B

26. A man by deceit causing a woman not lawfully married to him to believe that she is lawfully married to him and to cohabit with him in that behalf is dealt under

A Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans: A

27. All except one is false of the crimes that do not require legal fault on the part of the accused.

A. quasi criminal cases which are prohibited in public interest under a penalty

B. cases of public nuisance, libel and contempt of court

C. cases with criminal proceeding but is a mode of enforcing a civil right

D. cases of domestic violence

Ans: D

28. In which of the following conditions a corporation can be prosecuted?

A. if it is a person under Section 10 of the Penal Code

B. if it is a person under Section 11 of the Penal Code

C. if it is a person under Section 12 of the Penal Code

D. if it is a person under Section 14 of the Penal Code

Ans: B

29. The maxim of law impontia excusat legam is intimately connected with which maxim of law.

A. lex cogit adimpossiblis

B. lex non ad impossiblis

C. lex non cogit ad impossiblis

D. lex actus reus impossiblis

Ans: C

30. Two brothers sleeping on the floor of a room. The victim was done to death admittedly by the accused around midnight with a dao when the victim was in deep slumber. The defence stated that the accused in his dream was being throttled by someone so he took out the dao kept the head of the bed to apprehend his attacker. However the dao hit his brother and killed him.

A. The accused must be convicted under criminal liability

B. The accused must be absolved from criminal liability

C. it is a case of automatism

D. both (B) and (C)

Ans: D

31. In which of the following case regarding the ‘degree of proof ‘ and ‘reasonable doubt’ the Supreme Court has held that: “In a criminal trial the degree of proof is stricter than what is required in a civil proceeding. In criminal trial however intriguing may be facts and circumstances of the case, the charges made against the accused must be proved beyond all reasonable doubt, does not stand altered even after the introduction of Section 498-A I.P.C and Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act___________The doubt must of reasonable man and the standard adopted must be a standard adopted by a reasonable and just man for coming to a conclusion considering the particular subject matter.”

A. State of West Bengal v. Orilal Jaiswal (1994)

B. Inder Singh v. State (Delhi Administration) (1978)

C. Uma Shankar v. State of UP (1979)

D. Dhram Das Dadhwani v. State of UP (1974)

Ans: A

32. Marrying again during the lifetime of a husband or wife is dealt under

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans: B

33. Regarding ‘reasonableness of doubt’ in which of the following case the Supreme Court indicated: “That the conscience of the Court can never be bound by any rule but that is coming itself dictates the consciousness and prudent exercise of the judgement. Reasonable doubt is simply that degree of doubt which would permit a reasonable and just man to come to conclusion. Reasonableness of the doubt be commensurate with the nature of the offence to be investigated__________ Letting guilty is not doing justice, according to the law”

A. Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh (1990)

B. Nagar Swasthya Adhikari v. Kishan Singh (1969)

C. Ashrubindu Ray v. Chittaranjan Banerjee (1978)

D. None of them

Ans: A

34. Making or counterfeiting a seal, plate, etc, with intent to commit a forgery punishable otherwise than under section 467 of the Indian Penal Code, or possessing with like intent any such seal plate, etc, knowing the same to be counterfeit is dealt under

A. Section 471 of IPC

B. Section 472 of IPC

C. Section 473 of IPC

D. Section 474 of IPC

Ans: C

35. In case same set of facts attracts a civil suit and also a criminal trial, what should be done?

A. The civil suit should be stayed

B. The criminal case should be stayed

C. The civil suit should be quashed

D. Both should be simultaneously carried out

Ans: A

36. Act caused by inducing a person to believe that he will be rendered an object of Divine displeasure is dealt under

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans: C

37. Which of the following is a fundamental maxim of natural justice?

A. audi alteram partem

B. nullum tempus occurritregi

C. memo debet esse judex in propria causa sua

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

38. As far as complaints are concerned, at which of the following stage summons are issued?

A. Section 202 of Cr. PC

B. Section 203 of Cr. PC

C. Section 204 of Cr. PC

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: C

39. X was accused of a criminal offence by Y and the case pended on for 12 years, during which not a single witness was produced by the prosecution. Which of the following article of the Constitution of India in this case was violated?

A. Article 12, Constitution of India

B. Article 15, Constitution of India

C. Article 21, Constitution of India

D. Article 25, Constitution of India

Ans: C

40. Criminal intimidation is dealt under

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans: A

41. Mr. X was prosecuted for importing gold into India in contravention of Section 8(1) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 read with the notification there under. It was argued that notification dated November 8, 1962 and that the accused could have no idea about as it was published in the Gazette of India while the accused left his country on November 27, 1962.

A. the contention must be upheld as the plea of ignorance is valid

B. the contention must be repelled as the plea of ignorance is not valid

C. the case must be upheld because accused is a foreign national

D. None of them

Ans: B

42. House-trespass in order to the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment for life is dealt under

A. Section 448 of IPC

B. Section 449 of IPC

C. Section 450 of IPC

D. Section 451 of IPC

Ans: C

43. In a certain case in the High Court an advocate made a complaint against A, a Sub-Inspector of Police that A in course of investigation of a few cases against F in official capacity oppressed him in the exercise of his official capacity which was offence under Section 124 Government of India Act 1910.

A. the High Court have the jurisdiction to summon and punish the delinquent

B. the High Court does not have the jurisdiction to summon and punish the delinquent

C. the High Court have the jurisdiction only to summon the delinquent

D. none of them

Ans: B

44. Which of the following are always exempted from the jurisdiction of criminal courts of every country?

A. Foreign sovereigns and ambassadors

B. Alien enemies, foreign army and warships

C. Presidents and Governors

D. All of them

Ans: D

45. Mischief with intent to destroy or make unsafe a decked vessel or a vessel of 20 tonnes burden is dealt under

A. Section 434 of IPC

B. Section 435 of IPC

C. Section 436 of IPC

D. Section 437 of IPC

Ans: D

46. Which of the following Section of the IPC relate to extraterritorial operations of the Code?

A. Section 2 and Section 3

B. Section 3 and Section 4

C. Section 2 and Section 3

D. Section 2 and Section 4

Ans: B

47. Kidnapping for ransom, etc is dealt under

A. Section 361 A of IPC

B. Section 362 A of IPC

C. Section 363 A of IPC

D. Section 364 A of IPC

Ans: D

48. To which of the following section does the Section 4 of the IPC applies?

A. any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India

B. any person on ship or aircraft registered India wherever it may be

C. Both of (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: C

49. Appellant’s son was married to the complainants and appellant was undisputedly a Mauritius citizen and her son and daughter-in-law were residing in Kuwait. A complaint petition was filed before the chief judicial magistrate XYZ by complainant alleging therein mental torture and physical harassment by her husband. Appellant (mother-in- law of the complainant) who was also made a party filed an application for quashing of proceeding on the ground that cognizance taken by the magistrate was bad in law as she was Mauritius citizen and the alleged offence was committed in Kuwait where only cause of action had arisen:

A. The entire proceeding as been illegally initiated and without jurisdiction and actions taken by the court is liable to be nullified

B. The cognizance taken by the magistrate and the process issued is in order

C. Only the principle of res judicata will apply in such case

D. None of them

Ans: A

50. Fraudulently marking a false mark upon any package or receptacle containing goods, with intent to cause it to be believed that it contains goods which ir does not contain etc is dealt under

A. Section 485 of IPC

B. Section 486 of IPC

C. Section 487 of IPC

D. Section 488 of IPC

Ans: C

51. Piracy covers:

A. jure gentium

B. statute law of England

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: C

52. Making or using documents resembling currency-notes or bank notes is dealt under

A. Section 489 D of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC

C. Section 490 of IPC

D. Section 491 of IPC

Ans: B

53. Being bound to attend on or supply the wants of a person who is helpless from youth, unsoundness of mind or disease, and voluntarily omitting to do so is dealt under

A. Section 489 D of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC

C. Section 490 of IPC

D. Section 491 of IPC

Ans: D

54. Acts A, B and C constitute an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act and the same acts A, B and C constitute an offence under Section 408, Penal Code. Therefore:

A. the offender can be punished under both the Acts

B. the offender cannot be punished at all

C. the offender can be punished under either of the Acts but not both

D. none of them

Ans: C

55. Extortion by threat of accusations of an offence punishable with death imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years and if the offence threatened be an unnatural offence is dealt under

A. Section 388 of IPC

B. Section 389 of IPC

C. Section 390 of IPC

D. Section 391 of IPC

Ans: A

56. Robbery if committed on the highway between sunset and sunrise is dealt under

A. Section 390 of IPC

B. Section 391 of IPC

C. Section 392 of IPC

D. Section 393 of IPC

Ans: C

57. Which Section of the IPC should be read as provision to Section 105 of the Evidence Act?

A. Section 5 of IPC

B. Section 4 of IPC

C. Section 3 and 5 IPC

D. Section 6 of IPC

Ans: D

58. Using a false property mark with inten to deceive or injure any person is dealt under

A. Section 480 of IPC

B. Section 481 of IPC

C. Section 482 of IPC

D. Section 483 of IPC

Ans: C

59. Which of the following explains the ‘sense of expression once explained’?

A. Section 6 and Section 7 of IPC

B. Section 6 of IPC

C. Section 7 of IPC

D. None of them

Ans: C

60. Which of the following is a limitation with vicarious liability?

A. certain crimes because of their nature cannot be committed by a corporation

B. corporal punishment cannot be imposed on a corporation

C. cannot be convicted of manslaughter

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

61. Criminal liability of a corporation arises when:

A. an offence is committed in the course of corporation’s business by the person in control of its affairs

B. an offence is committed in the course of corporation’s business by a person in control whose thought and intent becomes thought and intent of the corporation

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: C

62. Extortion by a putting a person in fear of death or grievous is dealt under

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Ans: B

63. Which of the following is true is of the word “Judge” under Section 19 of IPC?

A. denotes a person officially designated as a Judge

B. denotes every person who is empowered by law to give a definitive judgment in any legal proceeding, civil or criminal

C. denotes of a body of persons which is empowered by the law to give judgment

D. all of them

Ans: D

64. Person voluntarily causing hurt in committing or attempting to commit robbery, or any other person jointly concerned in such robbery is dealt under

A. Section 394 of IPC

B. Section 395 of IPC

C. Section 396 of IPC

D. Section 397 of IPC

Ans: A

65. Which of the following does not fall under the category of the word “Judge” as coined in Section 19?

A. Magistrate

B. Member of a Panchayat

C. Collector

D. Businessman

Ans: D

66. Which of the following amendment added Clause 11 and Explanation 4 in Section 21 of IPC?

A. Act XXXIX, 1920

B. Adaptation of Laws Order, 1950

C. Act II, 1950

D. Anti-Corruption Act, 1964

Ans: B

67. In which of the following case the principle was held by the Supreme Court that where a subsequent Act incorporates provisions of a previous act, the burrowed provisions become an integral and independent part of the subsequent Act and are totally unaffected by any repeal or amendment in the Prevention Act, does not apply?

A. where the subsequent Act and the previous Act are supplemental to each other

B. where the two Acts are pari material and where the amendment of the previous Act either expressly or by necessary intendment, applies the said provisions to the subsequent Act

C. where the amendment in the previous Act if not imported into the subsequent Act would render the Act unworkable and ineffectual

D. all of them

Ans: D

68. Which of the following is not relevant to the practice and procedures of Section 22 of IPC?

A. does not provide definition of “public servant”

B. no court can take cognizance of any offence against a public servant except with the previous sanction of the Central Government or the State Government as per the provisions of Section 197 Cr. P.C

C. the protection is available to a person, if on the date of commission of offence he was public servant irrespective of his subsequent retirement, resignation, dismissal or even removal

D. deals with extra territorial applicability but does not define any substantive offence or procedure

Ans: D

69. X is an owner of a property and he owe some money to Y. X has not been able to pay the due and Y forcibly took possession of his property against his will to pressurise him into paying up his debts.

A. Y has all the authority to do so

B. X no longer has right over his property

C.Y is guilty of theft

D. None of them

Ans: C

70. In a certain case in Delhi the accused proposed marriage of his son with the gentleman of a daughter who was pregnant with someone else’s child (a fact that has not been concealed). However he concealed the fact that his son is suffering from a mental disorder the gentleman marries his daughter to his son then the accused:

A. cannot be hold guilty because even the gentleman’s daughter is at fault

B. is prima facie guilty of cheating due to the element of wrongful gain involved

C. cannot be accused as it the gentleman’s responsible to the ascertain complete fact concerning the would be bridegroom

D. none of them

Ans: B

71. Oral threat or inducement allegedly given by lawyers to approver not to give any statement against accused:

(a) amounts to commission of offence

(b) does not amount to commission of offence

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b)

72. Theft under section 379 IPC is not tenable if:

(a) property is not a movable property

(b) property cannot be moved in order to such taking

(d) both (a) & (b).

Ans. (d)

73. If the appellants are liable to be convicted only for their individual acts then:

(a) section 34 IPC can be invoked

(b) section 34 IPC cannot be invoked

(d) section 149 IPC cannot be invoked.

Ans. (b)

74. When all the incriminating facts and circumstances are found to be incompatible with the innocence of the accused then:

(a) the inference of guilt can be justified

(b) the inference of guilt cannot be justified

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a)

75. In which case the Supreme Court held that if a student and teacher fall in love with each other, it does not mean that the teacher has taken undue advantage of his official position:

(a) Geejaganda Somaiah v. State of Karnataka (2007)

(b) Sanjay v. State of Maharashtra (2007)

(d) Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2007)

Ans. (c)

76. Under the Indian Penal Code who among the following is liable for committing theft:

(a) child below 7 years of age

(b) child below 8 years of age

(d) child between 7 and 12 years of age having maturity of understanding.

Ans. (d)

77. Under the general principle of Criminal Law, the jurisdiction to try a person for an offence depends upon:

(a) place where such person is found

(b) place where crime committed within local area

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b)

78. The imprisonment for the offence of molestation under IPC amounts to:

(a) imprisonment upto 2 years

(b) imprisonment upto 1 year

(d) imprisonment upto 3 months

Ans. (a)

79. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that “Doctors cannot be held guilty only because something has gone wrong”:

(a) Maniben v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2010 SC 1261

(b) Southern Railway Officer v. Union of India, AIR 2010 SC 1241

(d) Malaya Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar, AIR 2010 SC 1162.

Ans. (d)

80. As per section 195A of IPC which was inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 the offence of threatening any person to give false evidence, is punishable with:

(a) imprisonment upto 7 years or with fine or with both

(b) imprisonment upto 5 years or with fine or with both

(d) imprisonment upto 1 year or with fine or with both

Ans. (a)

81. As per section 153AA of IPC, which was inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005, the punishment for knowingly carrying arms in any procession or organising or holding or taking part in any mass drill or mass training with arms, is punishable with:

(a) imprisonment upto 6 months and with fine upto Rs. 2,000

(b) imprisonment upto 3 months and with fine upto Rs. 2,000

(d) imprisonment upto 1 month and with fine upto Rs. 2,000.

Ans. (a)

82. The Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 (10 of 2009) with effect from 27 October, 2009 which amended the Indian Penal Code in section 464, substituted “Electronic Signature” for:

(a) Digital signature

(b) Documentary Evidence

(d) Electronically certified signature.

Ans. (a)

83. “A” gave poisoned “Halwa” (sweet dish) to “B” with intention to kill him. “B” ate one spoon and kept it on the side. “C” who was sitting there, picked up and ate it. “C” dies. Here “A” is guilty of:

(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(b) Offence of murder of “C”

(d) Causing grievous hurt.

Ans. (b)

84. The term “Harbour” defined under Indian Penal Code, 1860, does not include:

(a) Supplying a person with shelter

(b) Supplying a person means of conveyance

(d) Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission thereof.

Ans. (d)

85. When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, “X” captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by “X”:

(a) Sexual assault

(b) Insulting the modesty of a woman

(d) Stalking.

Ans. (c)

86. Read the following:

(1) There is either theft or extortion in robbery

(2) The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is coupled with danger to life.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true,

(d) (1) and (2) both are false.

Ans. (c)

87. Read the following:

(1) Indian Courts have jurisdiction to try crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.

(2) Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try crime committed by a foreigner in India.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true.

(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.

Ans. (c)

88. Read the following:

(1) The maxim “Actus me invito factus non est mens acts” finds application in Section 94 of I.P.C.

(2) The maxim “diminmis non curat lex” has been incorporated in Section 95 of I.P.C.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true.

(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.

Ans. (c)

89. In which case the Supreme Court of India has said that the time has come when Section 309 of the I.P.C. should be deleted by Parliament:

(a) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India

(b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

90. ‘Z’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘A’ fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z but not intending to kill Z; and in good faith intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a mortal wound. A shall be guilty of:

(a) Murder

(b) Culpable homicides not amounting to murder

(d) No offence.

Ans. (d)

91. In which of the following cases, recently the Supreme Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a criminal statute in “offences against the order of the nature”:

(a) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

(b) Charu Khurana v. Union of India

(d) Suresh Kumar Khushal v. Naz Foundation.

Ans. (d)

92. Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of persons committing robbery is:

(a) 10 persons

(b) 5 persons

(d) 4 persons.

Ans. (b)

93. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, (2014) 3 SCC 1 is the case related to:

(a) giving false evidence before the court

(b) waging war against the state

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (c)

94. ‘A’ claiming to be a family planning expert gave ‘X’ some chemical. After consuming the chemical, the child in the womb of ‘X’ dies in the womb. ‘A’ has committed:

(a) No offence

(b) Offence of murder

(d) Offence of causing miscarriage.

Ans. (d)

95. ‘A’ by falsely pretending to be in the civil service, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thus dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay. ‘A’ has committed:

(a) Cheating by personation

(b) Cheating

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (b)

96. Read the following:

(1) R. v. Mcnaughten is the case related with insanity as a defence.

(2) R. v. Govinda is the case related with common intention.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true

(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.

Ans. (a)

97. “A” under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill “B”. “B” in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to “A”. Here:

(a) “A” is liable for attempt to murder and “B” is liable for causing hurt

(b) “A” commits no offence and “B” is liable for grievous hurt

(d) Both “A” and “B” are excused from liability.

Ans. (d)

98. In which of the following Sections of I.P.C. ‘preparation’ is punishable:

(a) Sections 121, 125, 398

(b) Sections 122, 125, 399

(d) Sections 121, 126, 398.

Ans. (c)

99. Which of the following is not “sine qua non” for making a person criminally liable:

(a) Actus reus

(b) Mens rea

(d) All the above.

Ans. (c)

100. To which of the following offences the Apex Court judgment in Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar is related to:

(a) Sections 420 and 511 of I.P.C.

(b) Section 511 of I.P.C. only

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

101. What should be the age of minor to constitute the offence of kidnapping:

(a) 16 years

(b) 18 years

(d) Below 18 years in case of male and below 21 years in case of female.

Ans. (c)

102. ‘A’ having joint property with Z in a horse, intending thereby to cause wrongful loss to Z, shoots the horse. Under what section of I.P.C. ‘A’ shall be charged with:

(a) Section 426

(b) Section 429

(d) Section 438.

Ans. (b)

103. ‘A’ has consensual sexual relations with ‘Z’s wife. She gives to ‘A’ a valuable property which ‘A’ knows to belong to her husband ‘Z’ and she has no authority from ‘Z’ to give. ‘A’ takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by ‘A’:

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Theft and criminal breach of trust

(d) Criminal misappropriation.

Ans. (c)

104. Adultery is an offence committed:

(a) with the consent of a married woman

(b) with the consent of a woman

(d) with the consent of a minor girl.

Ans. (a)

105. The expression “unsoundness of mind”:

(a) is not defined in I.P.C.

(b) is defined in I.P.C.

(d) is not general exception in I.P.C.

Ans. (a)

106. State of A.P. v. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following sections of Indian Penal Code:

(a) Sections 501 and 502

(b) Sections 299 and 300

(d) Sections 305 and 306.

Ans. (b)

107. Which sections of Indian Penal Code provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force:

(a) Sections 171A to 171-1

(b) Sections 124 to 129

(d) Sections 165 to 171.

Ans. (c)

108. In which case the court made a clear distinction between ‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’:

(a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor

(b) Mahboob Shah v. King Emperor

(d) Rishi Deo Pandey v. State of U.P.

Ans. (b)

109. Which is not the ‘stolen property’:

(a) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating

(b) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery

(d) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust.

Ans. (a)

110. In which of the following cases, the offence of ‘house-breaking’ is committed:

(a) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door

(b) A finds the key of Z’s house-door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass, by entering Z’s house through that key

(c) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y’s doorway. A commits house-trespass by entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him

(d) All these.

Ans. (d)

Law, India, Penal Code, Questions and Answers on Indian Penal Code

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