Are you preparing for UP Judicial Service Civil Judge exam? Here are top 100 sample questions and answers on General Knowledge (GK) and Law for UP Judicial Service Civil Judge exam!
1. As per the ‘Educational Development Index’ (February 2011) the four top most States of India are:
(a) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Delhi
(b) Kerala, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab
(c) Kerala, Delhi, Gujarat, Maharashtra
(d) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Karnataka
2. Reserve Bank of India follows which system for the issue of currency:
(a) Minimum Reserve System
(b) Proportionate Reserve System
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
3. Which reason among the following explains the low growth rate of real National Income as compared to Monetary National Income:
(a) Population is increasing
(b) Inequalities are growing
(c) Price level is increasing
(d) Export are lesser than imports
4. By December 31, 2010, which among the following countries had the largest Foreign Exchange Reserve:
5. The SEBI imposed a restriction on the money flow in the equity through “P-Notes”. What is the full form of “P-Notes”:
(a) Permanent Notes
(b) Purchase Notes
(c) Private Notes
(d) Participatory Notes
6. Which sector contributes the highest share in Gross Domestic Savings in India:
(a) Household Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Government Sector
(d) Private Corporate Sector
7. The rationale of Public Distribution System (PDS) is:
(a) To control prices
(b) To reduce fluctuation in prices
(c) To ensure equitable distribution of essential goods
(d) All of the above
8. Which of the following controls credit creation by the Commercial Banks in India:
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Government of India
(d) State Bank of India
9. The Government of India earns maximum revenue from:
(b) Union Excise Duty
(c) Customs Duty
(d) Corporation Tax
10. Which among the following is not included in the development expenditure of Central Government:
(a) Defence Expenditure
(b) Expenditure on Economic Services
(c) Expenditure on Social and Community Services
(d) Grants to States
11. Which among the following States has the maximum production of coffee in India:
(d) Tamil Nadu
12. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna aims at:
(a) Meeting rural needs like education, health, housing, roads, water etc.
(b) Alleviating poverty through micro- enterprises
(c) Generating employment in the ruler areas
(d) Strengthening the Panchayat Raj System to rural areas
13. Recently foundation stone of a new Rail Coach Factory has been laid at:
(c) Rae Bareli
14. Which one of the following is the objective of National Food Security Mission:
(a) To increase production of rice
(b) To increase production of wheat
(c) To increase production of pulses
(d) All the above
15. Which of the Indian Five Year Plans ensured higher growth rate as compared with the targeted growth rate:
(a) 2nd Five Year Plan
(b) 4th Five Year Plan
(c) 6th Five Year Plan
(d) 8th Five Year Plan
16. The present Trade Policy (2009-14) of the Government of India aims to achievement annual export growth rate of:
(a) 14 percent
(b) 15 percent
(c) 16 percent
(d) 13 percent
17. Which one of the following States has the largest area under forests:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
18. Which one of the following States does not have notified scheduled tribes:
19. Which one of the following States is the main producer of Cashew Nuts:
20. Which of the following economic subjects does not come in the ambit of Finance Commission:
(a) Division and distribution of Income tax and other taxes.
(b) Grants-in-aid to the States by the Union.
(c) Distribution of Plan Revenue Resources.
(d) Any other matter concerning financial relations between the Union and States.
21. As compared to 2012-13, defence spending has been increased by what percentage in the Union Budget for 2013-14:
22. Disguised unemployment is a feature of:
23. The Rajya Sabha can detain the ordinary bill for a maximum period of:
(a) 14 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
24. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission:
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Law Minister
(d) Finance Minister
25. The Panchayati Raj system under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1993 does not apply to:
(a) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram.
(b) Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand
(c) Uttarakhand, Bihar, Rajasthan.
(d) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram.
26. Which State of India has made Rain water harvesting compulsory for all houses:
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
27. As a non-member who can participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament:
(a) Vice President
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Attorney General
(d) None of these
28. In the year 2010, the Election Commission of India celebrated its:
(a) Silver Jubilee
(b) Golden Jubilee
(c) Diamond Jubilee
(d) Platinum Jubilee
29. Who among the following can act as Presiding Officer of the House without being its member:
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Chairman of the Legislative Council
(d) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
30. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India:
(b) Prime Minister
(d) Vice President
31. The language of Sangam literature was:
32. Shahjahan used to enter the Jama Masjid through the:
(a) Eastern gate
(b) Western gate
(c) Southern gate
(d) Northern gate.
33. Who among the following is called the “Father of Modern Urdu Poetry”:
(a) Amir Khusrau
(b) Mirza Ghalib
(c) Mazhar Jaanjana
(d) Wali Deccani.
34. Gasohol is a combination of gasoline and:
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Methyl alcohol
(d) Butyl alcohol.
35. Who of the following has called Indian Federalism as Co-operative Federalism:
(a) K.C. Wheare
(b) Sir Ivor Jennins
(c) G. Austin
(d) D.D. Basu.
36. Which one of the following statements about ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ is NOT correct:
(a) They are positive
(b) They can be enforced by Courts
(c) They make India a Welfare State
(d) State has a duty to implement them.
37. The term “Assuring the Dignity of the Individual” has been mentioned in the Indian Constitution:
(a) As Fraternity objective in the Preamble
(b) As one of the functions of the Supreme Court
(c) As one of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) As a corollary of Right to Equality.
38. Which one of the following Articles about Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of Children:
39. Who of the following is credited with the establishment of the University Grants Commission:
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
40. When a body is taken from the Earth to the Moon:
(a) Its weight increases
(b) Its weight decreases
(c) Its weight remains unchanged
(d) It becomes completely weightless
41. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given at the end:
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill
3. Money Bill must be returned to Lok Sabha within 14 days by the Rajya Sabha
4. There is a provision for joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in case of Disagreement over a Money Bill
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 3 and 4 are correct
(c) Only 4 is correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct.
42. Which among the following sectors has contributed most to the growth of G.D.P. in India in 2014-15:
(a) Service Sector
(b) Manufacturing Sector
(c) Primary Sector
(d) Foreign Trade Sector
43. In India, which among the following is not included in Small Savings Scheme:
(a) Public Sector Bank savings deposit
(b) Public Provident Fund
(c) Senior Citizen Saving Scheme
(d) National Savings Certificate (VIIIth issue)
44. Main thrust of 20 point economic programme (restructured in 2006) in India, is:
(a) Removal of poverty only.
(b) Improvement in quality of life only.
(c) Benefit of insurance for all only.
(d) Only (a) and (b) above.
45. The Head Office of Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is located at:
(a) New Delhi
46. In which State India’s first railway line is being built under public private partnership model:
(a) West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh
47. Viticulture is known for the production of:
48. Black-Revolution is related to:
(a) Coal production
(b) Black hole
(c) Petroleum production
(d) Leather production
49. India purchased 200 Tonnes of gold from IMF in which of the following Five Year Plans:
50. Which among the following was the theme of 9th National Statistics Day of India observed in 2015:
(a) Social Development
(b) Financial Inclusion
(c) Digital India
51. Which of the following Banks has become the first Bank to launch ‘Watch-Banking Scheme’ in India:
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) HDFC Bank
(c) Axis Bank
52. Account under ‘Sukanya-Samriddhi Yojana’ can be opened for a daughter aged:
(a) Maximum 7 years
(b) Maximum 8 years
(c) Maximum 9 years
(d) Maximum 10 years
53. Which is the largest fresh water lake in India:
54. Which one of the following does not come within the territorial jurisdiction of Punjab and Haryana High Court:
55. An agreement in restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is:
56. ‘A’ proposes by letter to sell a house to ‘B’ at a certain price. The communication of proposal is complete when:
(a) ‘A’ posts the letter
(b) ‘A’ has completed the writing of letter
(c) ‘B’ gets information about the posting of the letter
(d) ‘B’ receives the letter
57. A and B enter into contract due to mistake that a particular debt is time-barred. Contract is:
(d) Both (b) and (c).
58. ‘A contract of telephone becomes complete at the place where acceptance is heard.’ In which case it has been held:
(a) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal
(b) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(c) Mohribibi v. Dharmodas Ghosh
(d) Satyabratta Ghosh v. Mugneeram.
59. A wagering agreement depends on:
(a) An uncertain event
(b) Future event only
(c) Past unascertained only
(d) None of the above events.
60. Which one of the following is not essential for a contract:
(b) Valuable consideration
(c) Lawful consideration
(d) Adequate consideration.
61. “Continuing Guarantee” has been defined:
(a) Under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
(b) Under Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act
(c) Under Section 146 of the Indian Contract Act
(d) Under Section 147 of the Indian Contract Act.
62. The interpretation clause of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 has been provided in:
(a) Section 1
(b) Section 2
(c) Section 3
(d) None of the above.
63. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself:
64. “A” promises to obtain for “B” an employment in the public service and “B” promises to pay Rs. 1000 to “A”. The agreement is:
(b) Can be enforced at the option of the parties
(d) None of the above.
65. The W.T.O. Headquarters are located at:
(b) New York
66. ‘Ankleshwari’ is place in:
(a) Bihar where oil refinery has been built
(b) Madhya Pradesh where a fertilizer plant has come up
(c) Orissa, universally known for temples
(d) Gujarat where oil has been found recently.
67. The 2007 Cricket World Cup will be held in:
(c) New Zealand
(d) West Indies.
68. Who among the following is the world’s first woman cosmonaut:
(a) Bachendri Pal
(b) Junko Tabei
(c) Valentena Tereshkova
(d) Sally Ride.
69. Who was the 1st woman among the following to become the Prime Minister of a country in the world:
(a) Benazir Bhutto
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Margaret Thatcher
(d) Sirimavo Bandaranaike.
70. The name of the Chicago Physician who wants to clone a human, is:
(a) Carl Feldbaum
(b) David Heed
(c) Dr. Friedman
(d) Dr. Richard Seed.
71. The controversial film ‘FIRE’ was directed by:
(a) Ketan Mehta
(b) Deepa Mehta
(c) Mahesh Bhatt
(d) Mira Nair.
72. Which of the following African countries is the member of commonwealth without being a part of former British empire:
73. The recommendation for uniform rates of sales-tax by all the States was made by:
(a) 10th Finance Commission
(b) Ministry of Finance Govt, of India
(c) Indian Planning Commission
(d) Chelliah Committee.
74. The sick industrial unit in India is one which:
(a) Has incurred cash losses during the current and preceding five financial years
(b) Has accumulated losses equal to or more than its net worth
(c) Has failed to repay three consecutive loan installments
(d) All the three above.
75. Which of the following State is not a member of ‘SAARC’:
76. The five year term for the Secretary General of the United Nations has been fixed by the:
(a) United Nations Charter
(b) Resolution of United Nations General Assembly
(c) Resolution of United Nations Security Council
(d) On the basis of an advisory opinion of the International Court of Justice
77. The official language of International Court of Justice are:
(a) French and English
(b) Arabic and English
(c) German and English
(d) Spanish and English
78. Which is a right of the Mortgagee and not that of a Mortgagor:
(a) Right to foreclosure
(b) Right to redeem
(c) Right to recover possession
(d) Right to inspect documents
79. Which of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act contains exception to the maxim “Nemo dat quad non habet”:
(a) Sections 41 and 42
(b) Sections 43 and 44
(c) Sections 41 and 44
(d) Sections 41 and 43
80. Pope Benedict XVI has announced his resignation on 11 February, 2013 because of:
(a) current international terrorism
(b) frequent violation of human rights
(c) poor health
(d) dwindling world economy
81. On 29 November, 2012, the United Nations General Assembly voted to make Palestine as:
(a) the 194th Member State of United Nations.
(b) the Non-voting Member of the United Nations.
(c) a Non-member Observer State.
(d) a Permanent Invitee to General Assembly Meetings.
82. Remedy of ‘Foreclosure’ is available in which one of the following mortgages:
(a) Usufructuary mortgage
(b) Mortgage by conditional sale
(c) Simple mortgage
(d) English mortgage
83. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is:
(d) None of the above
84. Nudum Pactum means:
(a) Without consideration
(b) invalid contract
(c) void contract
(d) voidable contract
85. In law of contract Bailor in pledge is called:
86. Consider the following statements and point out which of them is correct:
1. An agreement made without consideration is void.
2. Consider should have value in the eye of law.
3. Consider has to be adequate:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
87. A having advanced money to his son, B, during his minority, upon B’s coming of age obtains, by misuse of parental influence, a bond from B for a greater amount than the sum due in respect of the advance. A employs:
(c) undue influence
88. Austin’s book “the province of Determined” is:
(a) his autobiography.
(b) the lectures delivered in University.
(c) an answer to an essay Parliamentary Government.
(d) none of the above.
89. “Law is found not made” concept of law belongs to:
(a) sociological school
(b) analytical school
(c) historical school
(d) philosophical school
90. “Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of essential principles of law” has been said by:
91. “Jurisprudence is the philosophical aspect of the knowledge of law” has been said by:
92. “Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and devine; the science of just and unjust,” has been said by:
(c) Julius stone
93. “Law grows with the nation, increases with it, and dies with its dissolution and it is a characteristic of it.” It is said by:
(c) henry maine
94. “The theory of social solidarity” has been propounded by:
95. Which one of the following is not an essential element of Custom:
(a) A custom must be certain.
(b) A custom must be reasonable.
(c) A custom may not have been practiced continuously.
(d) A custom must be in conformity with statute law.
96. Which one of the following is not a theory of punishment:
(a) preventive theory
(b) social interest theory
(c) deterrent theory
(d) retributive theory
97. “Autre Fois Acquit” principle is related to:
(b) Double Jeopardy
(c) Ex Post Facto Law
98. Which one of the following is not provided in Section 4 of the Contract Act, 1872:
(a) Communication of a proposal
(b) Communication of acceptance
(c) Communication of revocation
(d) Revocation of proposals and acceptance.
99. ‘B’ says to ‘A—”If you do not deny it, I shall assume that the horse is sound”. ‘A’ says nothing. Here ‘A’s silence is equivalent to speech:
This illustration is based on:
(a) Section 17
(b) Section 18
(c) Section 19
(d) Section 20.
100. Wagering agreements are:
(a) Void but enforceable by law
(b) Void and not enforceable by law
(c) Voidable and illegal but enforceable by law
(d) Voidable and illegal but not enforceable by law.