Are you preparing for Bihar Judicial Services preliminary examination? Here are few multiple choice interview questions on Law and GK that will help you in clearing the exam!
1. According to Austin commands are of two types:
(a) General command and occasional or particular command
(b) Divine command and natural command
(c) General command and divine command
(d) Occasional command and natural commands.
Ans. (a)
2. In India who is Sovereign as per Austinian concept:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) In India there is diffused sovereignty which doesn’t correspond with Austin concept of Sovereignty.
Ans. (d)
3. Under Order XXXVII, Rule 3 of CPC the delay upto:
(a) 10 days is condonable
(b) 30 days is condonable
(c) 90 days is condonable
(d) no limit has been prescribed.
Ans. (d)
4. Which of the following is valid presumption of legitimacy under Hanafi law?
A. A child born within seven months of marriage will be illegitimate
B. A child born after 10 months of termination of marriage is illegitimate
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
5. If a defendant fails to put in appearance or fails to apply for leave within the statutory period, the suit is liable to be:
(a) stayed
(b) dismissed
(c) decreed
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (c)
6. The words ‘is not possessed of sufficient means’ in O. 33, r 1 refer:
A. To property over which the petitioner has actual control
B. To dower debt due by the petitioner’s husband
C. To sufficient properly and excludes sole means of livelihood
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
7. Which of the following deals with where neither party appears, suit to be dismissed in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 9, Rule 3
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 10, Rule 22
Ans. (A)
8. Which of the following procedure where there is no legal representative in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 22, Rule 4A
B. Order 10, Rule 9
C. Order 19, Rule 6B
D. Order 17, Rule 10C
Ans. (A)
9. A Hindu woman married a Mahomedan man. Later on Mahomedan man divorced her by talak ahsan. During the period of her iddat she gave birth to a child C. Which of the following statements will apply? Assume applicability of Shia law
A. C is legitimate
B. C is illegitimate
C. C is illegitimate but can be acknowledged by the husband
D. C is legitimate unless the husband denies paternity
Ans: B
10. The object of section 5 of the Code of Civil Procedure is ________
A. Its application to all matters on which the special or local court is silent
B. To preserve the summary character of rent litigation under the local laws
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
11. In the exercise of its executive power, a Government may do any act provided:
I. It is not an act assigned by the constitution to any other authority or body such as the Legislature or the Judiciary or the Public Service Commission.
II. It is not contrary to the provision of the Constitution or of any law.
III. The powers required for carrying out a policy are not available from the existing law.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. All are incorrect
B. All are correct
C. I and II
D. I and III
Ans. B
12. Which of the following deals with subordination of Courts in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 2
B. Section 6
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
Ans. (C)
13. Bar to further suit is dealt under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 11
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 12
Ans. (D)
14. Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is/are found to be correct?
I. Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by mandamus or any other legal remedy.
II. If the state seeks to promote any of these duties, that can be done only through methods permitted by and in consonance with the constitution.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
15. Which of the following Articles is associated with Fundamental Duties?
A. Article 50
B. Article 51
C. Article 49
D. Article 51A
Ans. D
16. Fundamental Duties have been added in the Constitution by which of the following Amendment Acts?
A. 40th Amendment Act
B. 42nd Amendment Act
C. 48th Amendment Act
D. 44th Amendment Act
Ans. B
17. Period of limitation for filing a summary suit is:
(a) 6 months from the date when the debt becomes due & payable
(b) one year from the date when the debt becomes due to payable
(c) two years from the date when the debt becomes due and payable
(d) three years from the date when the debt becomes due and payable.
18. Right to appeal is:
(a) statutory right
(b) natural right
(c) inherent right
(d) all the above.
19. Decisions regarding disqualification of members of Lok Sabha are taken by:
(a) Speaker
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(d) the Parliamentary Secretary.
Ans. (a)
20. Which one is correct statement:
(a) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the joint Session of both Houses of
Parliament
(c) The electoral college for election of Vice- President is same as that for election of President
(d) The nominated members of both Houses have voting right in the election of Vice- President but not President.
Ans. (d)
(a) Parliament may compel the State to execute the said directions
(b) The Governor may dissolve the State Legislature
(c) The President may presume that constitutional machinery in the State has failed
(d) The President may impose emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution.
Ans. (c)
22. Right to appeal is to be governed by:
(a) the law prevailing at the time of pronouncement of judgment
(b) the law prevailing at the time of institution of the suit
(c) the law prevailing on the date of appeal
(d) the law prevailing on the last day of limitation for filing an appeal.
Ans. (b)
(a) amendment of the Constitution
(b) approval of proclamation of emergency
(c) impeachment of President
(d) disapproval of proclamation of emergency.
Ans. (c)
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Council of States passes a resolution supported by not less than 2/3rd majority of the members present and voting that it is in the national interest that the Parliament make law on such matters.
2. Council of States and House of the People, both pass a resolution that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter.
3. The President gives a prior permission for such legislation.
4. Speaker of the House of the People in consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States gives the prior permission for such legislation.
Which of these statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Ans. (a)
25. The voting age has been reduced from 21 to 18 by the Parliament in the year:
(a) 1976
(b) 1978
(c) 1989
(d) 1991.
Ans. (c)
26. From which of following do the courts of India get power to apply Hindu Laws to Hindu?
I. Certain statures of British Parliament
II. Imperial Decrees passed during British rule
III. Article 372 of Constitution of India
IV. Dharmashastras
A. Ill and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
Ans: C
(a) 245, 246, 248 and 249
(b) 248, 249, 250 and 252
(c) 247, 250, 251 and 253
(d) 249, 250, 252 and 253.
Ans. (b)
28. The provision as to disqualification on ground of defection which was also amended by the Constitution 91st amendment of 2003 is provided in:
(a) 7th Schedule to Constitution
(b) 9th Schedule to Constitution
(c) 10th Schedule to Constitution
(d) 12th Schedule to Constitution
Ans. (c)
29. What is the subject matter of The Converts Marriage Dissolution Act, 1866?
A. Dissolution of marriage between Islam convert and a Hindu
B. Dissolution of marriage between Christian convert and a Hindu
C. Dissolution of marriage between any convert from Hinduism and a Hindu
D. Dissolution of marriage between members who are not Hindus
Ans: B
30. Who is author of Mitakshara?
A. Jimutavahana
B. Vijnaneshwara
C. Vyavahara
D. Madhaviya
Ans: B
31. Which of the following works did Jimutavahana wrote?
B. Dharmashastras
C. Mitakshara
D. Nirnaysindhu
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?
A. They are a special law within s. 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure,
B. They must take precedence over s. 114 or O. 47
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
33. If there is stipulation for the rate of interest, the court must allow the rate upon the date of the suit, subject to which of the following exceptions?
A. Any provision of the law applicable to money lending transaction, or usury laws or any other debt law governing the parties and having an overriding effect on any stipulation for payment of interest voluntarily entered into between the parties
B. If the rate is penal, the court must award at such rate as it deems reasonable
C. Even if the rate is not penal, the court may reduce it if the interest is excessive and the transaction was substantially unfair
D. All of these
Ans. D
34. Which of the following types of allegation constitute jurisdictional errors?
A. Exercise of jurisdiction not vested in the court below by the law
B. A jurisdiction vested in it by law was failed to be exercised and/or has acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
35. Which of the following may sue under s. 92 of the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Advocate-General, and outside the presidency-towns by the collector or by such an officer as the state government may appoint in that behalf (s. 93)
B. Two or more persons having an interest in the trust and having obtained the leave of the court
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
36. A, a client, says to B, an attorney -“I have committed forgery and I wish you to defend me.” Applying Section 126, Indian Evidence Act, as the defence of a man known to be guilty is not a criminal purpose:
A. this communication may be protected from disclosure
B. this communication must not be protected from disclosure
C. this communication is protected from disclosure
D. all of them
Ans. C
37. According to the following when is a confession relevant under Section 24, Indian Evidence Act?
A. if it is made after the impression caused by any such inducement, threat or promise has been fully removed (Section 28, Indian Evidence Act)
B. if it is not made to a Police Office (Section 25, Indian Evidence Act)
C. if it is made in the presence of a Magistrate when the accused is in the custody of a police-officer (Section 26, Indian Evidence Act)
D. all of them
Ans. D
38. Allegans contraria non est audiendus means:
A. he is not to be heard who does not alleges things contrary to each other
B. he is not to be heard who alleges things contrary to each other
C. he is to be heard who alleges things contrary to each other
D. none of them
Ans. B
39. Generally speaking oral testimony can be classified as:
A. wholly reliable
B. wholly unreliable
C. neither wholly reliable nor wholly unreliable
D. all of them
Ans. D
40. Section 19, Limitation Act, 1963 corresponds to which of the following sections of the Limitation Act., 1908?
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 19
D. Section 20
Ans. (D)
41. The proviso at the end of the first paragraph of the present Section 19, Limitation Act, 1963 [formerly the end of Section 20(1) in the 1908] owes its present form to which of the following Amendment Acts?
A. 1 of 1924
B. 1 of 1925
C. 1 of 1926
D. 1 of 1927
Ans. (D)
42. To attract the application of Section 19, Limitation Act, 1963 which of the following conditions must be satisfied?
A. The payment must be made within the period prescribed of limitation
B. It must be acknowledged by some term of writing either in the handwriting of the payer himself or signed by him
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
43. The word ‘sign’ in Section 19, Limitation Act, 1963 includes in view of the definition given in which of the following sections of the General Clauses Act making of a mark?
A. Section 3(49)
B. Section 3(50)
C. Section 3(51)
D. Section 3(52)
Ans. (D)
44. Which of the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1963 is an explanation to Section 18 and Section 19 of the same Act?
A. Section 15
B. Section 17
C. Section 20
D. Section 22
Ans. (C)
45. Which of the following statements are true?
I. Mitakshara is commentary
II. Dayabhaga is commentary
III. Mitakshara purports to be digest of all code
IV. Dayabhaga purports to be digest of all code
A. I and II
B. Ill and IV
C. I and IV
D. II and III
Ans: C
46. Under the (English) Powers of Attorneys Act, 1971 a power of attorney is irrevocable if it is expressed to be so and is given to secure:
A. a propriety interest of the donee of the power
B. the performance of an obligation owed to the donee
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
47. Under Section 55 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 the intention of the parties can be ascertained from:
I. the express words used in the contract
II. the nature of the property which forms the subject matter of the contract
III. the nature of the contract itself
IV. the surrounding circumstances
A. II, III
B. IV
C. I
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
48. Under the Contract Act the Court can reopen the transaction of the loan, reopen any account taken between the parties, or set aside or alter ay security given for a loan if:
A. the interest is excessive
B. the transaction was substantially unfair
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
49. Under which of the following any provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 would be void, if inconsistent with the fundamental rights?
A. Article 11 of the Constitution of India
B. Article 12 of the Constitution of India
C. Article 13 of the Constitution of India
D. Article 14 of the Constitution of India
Ans. (C)
50. Under which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, there can be no implied contract between the Government and another person?
A. Article 298
B. Article 299
C. Article 230
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
51. Under which of the following bailee is not responsible on re-delivery to bailor without title in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 166
B. Section 159
C. Section 163
D. Section 160
Ans. (A)
52. In which of the following cases did The Supreme Court pointed out that “By the reason of the expression whether acquired before or after the commencement of this Act, Section 14 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is retrospective in effect”
A. Harish Chandra v. Trioliki Singh
B. Amar Singh v. Sewa Singh
C. Lukai v. Niranjan
D. Kamala v. Ochhalal
Ans. A
53. In which of the following cases was it pointed out by the Supreme Court that “The section 14 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 covers all cases of property owned by a female Hindu although she may not be in actual, physical or constructive possession of the property, provided of course that she has not parted with her rights and is capable of obtaining possession of the property “?
A. Ganesh Mahanta v. Sukhia Bewa
B. Harak Singh v. Kail ash Singh
C. Mukhtiar Kaur v. Kartar Kaur
D. Mangal Singh v. Rattno
Ans. D
54. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court expressed the view that “the alienee cannot object to the proceedings on the ground of the challenge not being by the next reversioner who was alive and that a suit even by remote reversioner was also maintainable”
A. Hari Ram v. Harbans Singh
B. Bakshi Ram v. Brij Lai
C. Janku v. Kisan
D. Radhey Krishana v. Shiv Shankara
Ans. B
55. Which of the following is true about the relationship between the employees and with the company?
A. It is purely a contractual relationship of master and servant
B. There is no provision in the Act which imposes any statutory restriction or obligation limiting the company’s power of terminating the service of its employees
C. An employee illegally dismissed may have a right in damages and reinstatement by quashing the order of dismissal
D. None of these
Ans. C
56. Which of the following is true about the extent to which the Court can enforce a contract under s. 13, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. The Court will enforce the contract to the extent that is possible
B. The Court cannot grant a lease from a later date, for the full period originally agreed, from a new date, it would be a different lease
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
57. In which of the following cases was it held that “the daughter of a previous husband cannot inherit property inherited by her mother from her mother’s second husband. In the absence of son or daughter of wife from husband, the heirs of the husband inherit”?
A. Reetu Bahadva v. Hira Kunwar
B. Bhika Bai v. Mamta Bai
C. Shahaji Asme v. Si tar am Asme
D. Renuka Bala v. Aswini Kumar
Ans. A
58. A woman entered into sahih marriage. During marz-ul- maut her husband divorced her by talak-ul-biddat with a single pronouncement. The husband died after two months of divorcing. Which of the following statements will hold true? Assume applicability of Sunni law.
A. She is entitled to inherit
B. She is not entitled to inherit
C. She is only entitled to proper dower
D. She is not entitled to any dower
Ans: A
59. A woman entered into sahih marriage. Her husband divorced her by talak ahsan. Which of the following statements will apply to them? Assume applicability of Shia law.
A. They can remarry during the iddat period
B. They can remarry after the iddat period
C. Both A and B are valid
D. They cannot remarry until wife remarries and gets divorced
Ans: C
60. Which of the following is true about the object of s.6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. It is to protect possession
B. It affirms to an important principle of substantive law
C. It is to discourage people from taking law into their own hands, however good their title may be
D. All of these
Ans. D
61. A woman was divorced by talak hasan. She got married to A after completion of her iddat. Before consummation of marriage A passed away. She remarried her previous husband. Which of the following statements will apply?
A. The marriage is batil
B. The marriage is fasid
C. The marriage is sahih
D. Will depend on the sect
Ans: D
62. The Mahomedan law of acknowledgement of paternity can be invoked only in cases______.
A. Where the factum of marriage is not proved
B. Where the exact time of marriage is not proved
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A not B
Ans: C
63. Which of the following sections of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 deal with suspension of trustee’s power in case of a court decree?
A. Section 42
B. Section 43
C. Section 44
D. Section 45
Ans: D
64. B is a trustee, for the purpose of execution of the trust he incurred expenses of Rs. 45,854. Which of the following statement will apply to him under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. He cannot claim the amount back due to applicability of section 50 of the Act
B. He can claim the amount back due to applicability of section 32 of the Act
C. He cannot claim the amount back due to applicability of section 67 of the Act
D. He can claim the amount back due to applicability of section 30 of the Act
Ans: B
65. Which of the following deals with the Power to award compensation in certain cases in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 12
B. Section 15
C. Section 19
D. Section 21
Ans: D
66. Which of the following deals with the effect of declaration in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 12
B. Section 65
C. Section 23
D. Section 35
Ans: D
67. Which of the following deals with the cases in which specific performance of contract enforceable in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 11
B. Section 09
C. Section 10
D. Section 4
Ans: C
68. Which of the following deals with suit by person dispossessed of immovable property in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 2
B. Section 1
C. Section 6
D. Section 4
Ans: C
69. Which of the following deals with short title, extent and commencement of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 2
B. Section 1
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
Ans: B
70. Which of the following deals with Relief against parties and persons claiming under them by subsequent title in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 12
B. Section 15
C. Section 23
D. Section 19
Ans: D
71. Which of the following deals with mandatory injunctions in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 40
B. Section 37
C. Section 23
D. Section 39
Ans: D
72. What defense will excuse a defendant’s liability if the defendant was acting in an official capacity at the time that the plaintiff was injured?
A. Immunity
B. Necessity
C. Mistake
D. Privilege
Ans: A
73. To prevail under a theory of strict liability for product liability, the plaintiff needs to allege that-
A. There was a breach of duty of care
B. There was a flaw in the product
C. The dangerous product was knowingly put into the stream of commerce
D. The plaintiff assumed the risk of purchasing such a product
Ans: B
74. The concept that denied an injured family member from recovering in tort, so that only the male head of the household could sue, is:
A. lex talionis
B. nulle pene sene lege
C. pater familias
D. dulce decorum est
Ans: C
75. Even though a spouse has willingly engage in sexual intercourse with a neighbor, the other spouse likely could successfully sue for:
A. Loss of consortium
B. Negligent infliction of emotional distress
C. Duress
D. Seduction
Ans: A
76. In which of the following cases the court can re-open even a settled account?
A. When the account books are shown to be erroneous to a considerable extent both in amount and the number of items
B. Where a fiduciary relationship exists and one or more fraudulent errors or omissions are shown
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
77. It cannot be said that the amount of commission paid by the firm to a partner who has joined the firm in a representative capacity does not fall within the mischief of which of the following sections of the Income Tax Act and would therefore be deductible?
A. Section 37(b)
B. Section 38(b)
C. Section 39(b)
D. Section 40(b)
Ans: D
78. Which of the following school is also known as reformed school of Hindu Law?
A. Mitakshara
B. MithiIa
C. Dravida
D. Benares
Ans: D
79. Dayabhaga School differs from the Mitakshara School on which of the following points?
A. Law regarding Joint Family System
B. Law regarding Inheritance
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Ans: C
80. As a general rule, interest is not allowed between partners unless there is an agreement or trade custom, but this rule is subject to which of the following important qualification?
A. Interest is not payable to a partner on advance paid by the partner for partnership purposes beyond the capital he has agreed to subscribe
B. Interest is payable to a partner on advance paid by the partner for partnership purposes not beyond the capital he has agreed to subscribe
C. Interest is payable to a partner on advance paid by the partner for partnership purposes beyond the capital he has agreed to subscribe
D. None of these
Ans: C
81. The doctrine of actus curaie neminem gravabit is applicable to which of the following?
A. Acts of the court which ate erroneous
B. Acts as to which it can be held that the court would not have so acted had it been correctly apprised of the facts and the law
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
82. Pitt’s India Act was passed in the year of
A. 1782
B. 1783
C. 1784
D. 1785
Ans: C
83. For Rajya Sabha, how many members are nominated by President?
A.7
B. 10
C. 12
D.15
Ans: C
84. The rule in which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 recognises the right of a partner to charge interest on advances made by him to the firm as distinguished from capital subscriptions?
A. Section 10(d)
B. Section 11(d)
C. Section 12(d)
D. Section 13(d)
Ans: D
85. The treaty of Mangalore was signed between Tipu Sultan and the British. Who signed the treaty from the British side?
A. Lord Mac Cartney
B. Warren Hastings
C. Cornwallis
D. Wellesley
Ans: A
86. The reign of Lord Cornwallis as Governor General of India was
A. 1786- 1793
B. 1790-93
C. 1788- 1794
D. 1790- 1795
Ans: A
87. Who authored the book ‘Discovery of India’?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Bal Gangadhr Tilak
C. Rabindranath Tagore
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: D
88. Maharaja Ranjit Singh died in the year of
A. 1838
B. 1840
C. 1837
D. 1839
Ans: D
89. What comes in place of the question mark (?) 185 x 12 – 30 + 66- 12 = ?
A. 12.33
B. 11.67
C. 2136
D. 89
Ans: C
90. Which of the following is not a mammal?
A. Fish
B. Bat
C. Whale
D. None of these
Ans: A
91. Who wrote Jaina Kalpasutra?
A. Bhadrabahu
B. Sthalabahu
C. Mahavira
D. Parsvanath
Ans: A
92. Fa-hien visited India during the period of
A. Chandragupta Maurya
B. Chandragupta I
C. Samudragupta
D. Chandragupta II
Ans: D
93. The Paramara dynasty was founded by
A. Upendra
B. Bhoja
C. Sindhuraja
D. Vakpati-Munja
Ans: A
94. ‘The Kitab-ul-Hind’ was written by
A. Al-Masudi
B. Abu Raihan Alberuni
C. Ibn Batuta
D. Megasthenese
Ans: B
95. Who wrote ‘Padmavat’?
A. Chandbardai
B. Narpati Nalha
C. Gesudraj
D. Jayasi
Ans: D
96. The Province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by:
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Warren Hasting
(d) Lord Curzon.
Ans. (d)
97. Which party was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 after his break from the Congress:
(a) Abhinav Bharat
(b) Forward Bloc
(c) Swaraj Party
(d) Congress (I)
Ans. (b)
98. Who among the following had founded the Theosophical Society in the United States of America:
(a) Madame Blavatsky
(b) Madame Cama
(c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(d) Lala Hardayal.
Ans. (a)
99. Who among the following was a contemporary of Changiz Khan:
(a) Mahmud of Ghazni
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
Ans. (b)
100. During whose tenure was the capital of India transferred from Calcutta to Delhi:
(a) Lord Minto
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Chelmsford
Ans. (c)
101. Which of following soil group is also known as regur.
(a) Forest soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Lateritic soils.
Ans. (b)
102. Which of the following separates India from Sri Lanka:
(a) Palk Strait
(b) McMahum lines
(c) Gaza Strip
(d) Radcliffe line.
Ans. (a)
103. The First Science and Technology Park of India was set up in:
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkatta
(d) Benguluru.
Ans. (a)
104. The members of Constituent Assembly were:
(a) Directly elected
(b) Indirectly elected and nominated
(c) Nominated
(d) Selected from among freedom activists.
Ans. (a)
105. On which among the following dates the Constituent Assembly met for first time:
(a) 9 December, 1946
(b) 26 November, 1946
(c) 30th January, 1950
(d) 15th August, 1947.
Ans. (a)
106. The Constituent Assembly was formed under provisions of:
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Mountbatten Plan
(c) Atlee Plan
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
107. Which among the following is true with the Draft Constitution:
(a) It was formulated by Drafting Committee with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as its Chairman
(b) It was formulated by Advisory Committee with Dr. B.N. Rau as its Chairman
(c) It was formulated by Special Committee with Ballabhbhai Patel as its Chairman
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
108. Pandit Motilal Nehru was Chairman of the Select Committee for Drafting a Constitution for India. The year of such Committee was:
(a) 1928
(b) 1935
(c) 1942
(d) 1930.
Ans. (a)
109. Mr. Pranab Mukherjee is the:
(a) 13th President of India
(b) 15th President of India
(c) 11th President of India
(d) 12th President of India.
Ans. (a)
110. Which of the following powers is not delegated to Panchayats in India:
(a) To prepare plans and schemes for economic development
(b) To promote schemes that will enhance social justice
(c) To levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees
(d) To maintain law and order.
Ans. (d)
111. Which of the following laws is also known as the ‘Freedom of Religion Act’
A. The Special Marriage Act, 1954
B. The Converts’ Marriage Dissolution Act, 1866
C. The Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850
D. The Majority Act, 1875
Ans: C
112. Which of the following statements is true with regards to Hindu Law?
A. Mitakshara school is the only school of Law
B. Dayabhaga is the only school of law
C. Mitakshara is running commentary on the Code of Yajanavalka
D. Dayabhaga is also known as orthodox school
Ans: C
113. Which of the following paradigmatic shift is not seen in Indian democracy as yet:
(a) From a quasi-federal parliamentary model of government to a competitive federal parliamentary model
(b) From a centralized State system to an open government system with a strong civil society
(c) From a protectionist economic policy regime to a market-driven policy regime
(d) From a semi-literate casteist society to a near universal educated class society.
Ans. (b)
114. Which of the following has become the India’s first Parliamentary Constituency to have health insurance for all:
(a) Vidisha
(b) Ladakh
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Vijayawada.
Ans. (d)
115. The President of India forms an integral part of the legislative process of Central Government: because:
(a) He is executive head of Union
(b) He administers oath of Prime Minister of India
(c) He takes part in discussion in Joint Parliamentary Committee
(d) Without his assent no Central Bill can become law.
Ans. (d)
116. Which advanced monitoring system to be introduced by Indian Railways to collision avoidance:
(a) Tri – Netra
(b) Tri – Astra
(c) Tri – Shul
(d) Tri – Shutra.
Ans. (a)
117. Who is the author of the book “Kohinoor: The Story of the World’s Most Infamous Diamond”:
(a) Amish Tripathi
(b) Salman Rushdie
(c) William Dalrymple
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
118. Which of the following countries have not signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty:
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Israel
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
119. Which of the following does not have an influence over the climate in India:
(a) Monsoons
(b) Ocean currents
(c) Nearness to equator
(d) Presence of Indian Ocean.
Ans. (d)
120. 11th Indo-American Economic Summit was held in:
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Jaipur
(d) Kolkata.
Ans. (b)
121. The difference between the outflow and inflow of foreign currency is known as:
(a) Foreign Exchange Reserves
(b) Current Account Deficit
(c) Fiscal Deficit
(d) Balance of Payments.
Ans. (a)
122. Which among the following is not a part of foreign exchange reserves in India:
(a) Foreign Currency Reserves
(b) Gold Reserves
(c) Special Drawing Rights
(d) Foreign Institutional Investments.
Ans. (d)
123. The organisation which got Nobel Prize for peace three times:
(a) UN
(b) ILO
(c) Red Cross
(d) UNICEF.
Ans. (c)
124. The General Assembly of United Nations (UN) consists of:
(a) Five representatives of every member countries
(b) Two representatives for member country
(c) Representatives of all the member countries on the basis of one member one vote
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
125. ‘Veto’ power in the United Nations is exercised by…… :
(a) permanent members of the Security Council
(b) non-permanent members of the Security Council
(c) members of the general assembly
(d) judges of the international courts of justice.
Ans. (a)
126. Milk is the source of:
i. Vitamin C
ii. Vitamin D
iii. Vitamin A
iv. Vitamin K.
Choose the correct option:
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii and iii only
(c) ii, iii, iv
(d) i and iv only.
Ans. (c)
127. The first man-made satellite was:
(a) Skylab
(b) Sputnik-i
(c) Aryabhata
(d) Insat 3E.
Ans. (b)
128. The concept of ‘telemedicine’ first implemented by which satellite:
(a) INSAT-2E
(b) INSAT – 2B
(c) INSAT-3B
(d) INSAT-3D.
Ans. (c)
129. Which of the following types of transponders are mainly used in Communication Satellites:
(i) S-band
(ii) C-band
(iii) Ku-band
(iv) B – band
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) only (i), (ii) and (iii).
Ans. (d)
130. Very High Resolution Radiometer (VHRR) is basically:
(a) a telescope with a scanmirror
(b) a telescope without a scanmirror
(c) type of transponder
(d) type of camera being used in satellites.
Ans. (a)
131. The term ‘VSAT’ means:
(a) Vital Satellite
(b) Very Small Aperture Terminal
(c) Very Specific Aperture Terminal
(d) Visual Satellite.
Ans. (b)
132. What is the essence of Austinian command:
(a) Divine law
(b) The power and purpose to inflict evil consequences
(c) Positive morality
(d) Law by metaphor.
Ans. (b)
133. Which of the following is not among major feature of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT):
(a) The nuclear powers have agreed not to transfer nuclear weapons or control over them to any recipient, or to provide assistance in producing weapons to a non- nuclear country
(b) The non-nuclear countries have agreed neither to receive the weapons nor manufacture them
(c) However, the nuclear powers agreed to make available their nuclear know-how to the non-nuclear states for using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes
(d) All the above are major features of NPT.
Ans. (d)
134. The country with the maximum average internet speed is:
(a) Egypt
(b) Norway
(c) South Korea
(d) New Zealand.
Ans. (c)
135. According to Austin law is rule laid down for the guidance of a/an ……………… by an intelligent being having power over him:
(a) Animal being
(b) Foolish
(c) Coward
(d) Intelligent being.
Ans. (d)
136. The International Conference on ‘Bharat Bodh’ (Idea of Bharat) was held in which of the following cities:
(a) Kolkata
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Chennai.
Ans. (b)