Multiple Choice Questions for Indian Judicial Service Preliminary Exam! Are you preparing for Indian Judicial Service preliminary examination? Here are few questions on Law and GK subjects that are more likely to come in the Judicial Service exam of Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Goa, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Mizoram and Nagaland.
1. Which of the following statements regarding reasonableness of a penal law is/are found to be correct?
I. A procedure which was ‘arbitrary, oppressive or fanciful’ was no ‘procedure’ at all.
II. A procedure which was unreasonable could not be said to be in conformity with Article 14, because the concept of reasonableness permeated that Article in toto.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
2. Under which of the following, Section 13, Limitation Act, 1963 covers the rejection of pauper application?
A. Order 30, Rule 2 C.P.C
B. Order 31, Rule 3 C.P.C
C. Order 32, Rule 4 C.P.C
D. Order 33, Rule 5 C.P.C
Ans. (D)
3. The conversion of a Hindu wife to Mahomedanism________ ipso facto dissolver her marriage with her Husband and if she marries a Mahomedan after conversion ______ under section 494 of the Indian Penal Code.
A. Does, she will not be guilty
B. Does, she will have the right to custody of children
C. Does not, she will be guilty
D. Does Not, the question of custody of children does not rise
Ans: C
4. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The person arrested has a right to consult a legal advisor of his own choice, ever since the moment of his arrest and also to have effective interview with the lawyer out of the hearing of the police, though it may be within their presence.
II. The right extends to any person who is arrested, whether under the general law or under a special statute.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
5. ‘A’ was carelessly driving his car at 50 km/hr. at a busy street in the city and hit ‘B’ injuring his leg. On these facts the Supreme Court of India held that ‘A’ is liable to pay compensation to ‘B’. It means that the Supreme Court laid down the law that the injured party is entitled for compensation in all cases of:
A. Car accidents at a busy place, if the driver was negligent
B. Causing injury in accidents by negligent driving of any vehicle
C. Inflicting physical injury by negligence
D. Negligent causing of damage of another
Ans: D
6. Which of the following is mentioned in clause (2) of Article 22 of the Indian Constitution?
A. The right to consult legal practitioner
B. Right to be defended by a legal practitioner
C. Right to be produced before the nearest magistrate
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. C
7. Under which of the following sections of the Presidency- Towns Insolvency Act, (1990), an adjudication order may be made against a firm in the firm’s name and such an order made against each of the persons who at the date of the order was a partner in the firm?
A. Section 96
B. Section 97
C. Section 98.
D. Section 99.
Ans: D
8. An erroneous decision refusing to apply Section 12, Limitation Act, 1963 can be corrected under which of the following articles of the Constitution?
A. Article 224
B. Article 225
C. Article 226
D. Article 227
Ans. (D)
9. The right to make a representation against the order of detention is the most cherished and valuable right conferred upon a detenu under Article_________ of the Indian Constitution and if there has been any infraction of such right the detenu is entitled to be released.
A. 22(2)
B. 22(3)
C. 22(4)
D. 22(5)
Ans. D
10. ‘Labour or service exacted by Government or a person in power without giving remuneration for it’ is termed as:
A. Forced labour
B. Beggar
C. Unemployed
D. None of them
Ans. B
11. Which of the following deals with reference to High Court in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 111
B. Section 103
C. Section 108
D. Section 113
Ans. D
12. Which of the following states that orders and notices to be in writing in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 140
B. Section 142
C. Section 132
D. Section 100
Ans. B
13. Which of the following deals with appearance of one of several plaintiffs or defendants for others in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 7, Rule 6
B. Order 1, Rule 12
C. Order 13, Rule 5
D. Order 4, Rule 8
Ans. B
14. Which of the following deals with substituted service in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 5, Rule 20
B. Order 9, Rule 12
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 10, Rule 8
Ans. A
15. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour comes under which of the following fundamental rights?
A. Right to freedom
B. Right against exploitation
C. Right to education and culture
D. Right to constitutional remedies
Ans. B
16. Which of the following deals with the duty of defendant to produce documents upon which relief is claimed or relied upon by him in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 5, Rule 1
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 8, Rule 1A
D. Order 10, Rule 22
Ans. C
17. The legal grounds for refusing to grant relief under section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955__________ consist of collusion with the respondent.
A. Cannot
B. May
C. Must
D. None of the above
Ans: B
18. ‘Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 21
B. Article 21A
C. Article 22
D. Article 22A
Ans. C
19. Ascertainment whether allegations in pleadings are admitted or denied is dealt under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 10, Rule 1
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 11, Rule 22
Ans. A
20. Assertion (A): Proclamation of Emergency can be issued by the President if there is imminent danger of war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
Reason (R): The President can suspend the enforcement of all fundamental rights during the period of emergency:
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
21. During the recess of the Parliament, the President can promulgate ordinances:
(a) with the prior approval of Parliament
(b) with the consent of the Council of Ministers
(c) with the prior approval of Supreme Court of India
(d) on his own.
Ans. (b)
22. The decree of judicial separation is provisional and conditional, the court ______ while passing the decree impose terms on the parties as to the nature or duration of its operation.
A. Under certain circumstances, Can
B. Under certain circumstances, Must,
C. Cannot
D. Under certain circumstances, cannot
Ans: C
23. For cases falling under section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 determining factor.
A. Curability can be a
B. Curability is not a
C. Adultery can be a
D. Fidelity can be a
Ans: B
24. Which of the following statements best fill the blanks in following example? If it is shown that the husband and wife, as the case may be, after the fraud was discovered, lived together for__________ as husband and wife with full consent, would be sufficient for rejecting the plea for annulment under section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
A. Period of one year,
B. Period of two years
C. Period of six months
D. Whatever period
Ans: D
25. Where A and B enters into a transaction not merely to purchase cotton for the purpose of sharing it between them but with the object of reselling it and each party is to share the profit or bear the loss half and half so that neither could sell his part of the cotton as an independent transaction in he alone was interested without the consent of the order and whatever was to be done on the joint account, it amounts which of the following?
A. To a partnership
B. To a business
C. To a third party relation
D. None of these
Ans: A
26. A petition for nullity of marriage filled under section 12 sub-section (2)(b)(ii) on the day on which the courts opened after a long vacation __________ be entertained ______ the period of one year expired during the vacation.
A. Can, because
B. May, because
C. Cannot, even though
D. Cannot, unless
Ans: C
27. Divorce proceedings between an Indian citizen and a foreigner solemnized in a foreign country accordance with the laws of that country, _________ initiated under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
A. Can be
B. As long as both parties are Hindus, can be
C. As long as one party is Hindu, can be
D. Cannot be
Ans: D
28. A Mahomedan can by will dispose of_________.
A. One third of his property remaining after payment of debts
B. One third of his property remaining after funeral and death bed charges
C. All of his property remaining after payment of debts
D. None of these
Ans: D
29. Under Mahomedan law what can be the minimum share of heirs from deceased estate after payment of funeral charges and debts, unless he gives consent for less share?
A. Half of the property
B. One-third of the property
C. Two-third of the property
D. Cannot be calculated
Ans: C
30. Where one of the parties to the marriage had a spouse living at the time of marriage, the other spouse________ enter into marriage with other without obtaining a decree, if provisions of section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are applicable?
A. Cannot
B. Can, depending on facts of the case
C. Can
D. Cannot, with regards to section 33 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Ans: C
31. A partnership of two or more Karta of joint Hindu families would be illegal under section 4(3) of the Companies Act if the number of adult members of the joint family exceeds_______.
A. 17
B. 18
C. 19
D. 20
Ans: D
32. The petitioners’ ______ does________ a ground for relief under section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
A. Own infirmity, afford
B. Condonation, afford
C. Condonation, not afford
D. Own infirmity, not afford
Ans: D
33. Which of the followings is applied in India as a matter of justice, equity and good conscience but has not been expressly directed by legislature to be applied to Maho- medians?
A. Mahomedan law of Pre-emption
B. Mahomedan law of Evidence
C. Mahomedan rules of inheritance
D. None of these
Ans: A
34. In which cities “locomotives” are built:
(a) Chittaranjan, Varanasi, Bhopal
(b) Varanasi, Bhopal, Banaras
(c) Banaras, Chittaranjan, Bhopal
(d) Bihar, Bhopal, Banaras.
Ans. (a)
35. As a general rule to constitute a valid wakf, the beneficiaries should be _______.
A. Muslims in case of religious wakf
B. Muslims in case of charitable wakf
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: A
36. Which of the following statements hold true regarding wakfs?
A. A wakf of the mushaa for the purpose of mosque is valid in case property is indivisible
B. A wakf of the mushaa for the purpose of burial grounds is valid in case property is divisible
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
37. Which of the following cannot be valid object of wakf under Mahomedan law?
A. Grant to an Idgah
B. Payment of money to fakirs
C. Reading of Koran and recital of prayers for the welfare of soul of the deceased
D. The construction of irobat
Ans: C
38. The UNIDROIT principles expressly provide that in ascertaining the intention of parties, be it the subjective intention or the ‘reasonableness’ test, regard shall be had to which of the following circumstances:
I. preliminary negotiation between the parties
II. practices which the parties have established between themselves
III. the conduct of the parties subsequent to conclusion of the contract
IV. the nature and purpose of the contract
V. the meaning commonly given to terms and expressions in the trade concerned
VI. usages
A. I, II, IV, V
B. III, IV, VI
C. IV, V
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
39. The expression ‘unable to entertain’ in Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963 is equivalent to which of the following?
A. Unable to decide
B. Able to decide
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (D)
40. Under section 8 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who among the following will rank first as heir?
A. Widow
B. Mother
C. Widow of a predeceased son
D. None of the above
Ans. D
41. Under Section 30, Indian Evidence Act, what are some of the rules which must be followed during corroboration in each case?
I. it is not necessary that there should be independent confirmation of every material circumstance in the sense that the independent evidence in the case should in itself be sufficient to sustain conviction
II. the independent evidence must not only make it safe to believe that the crime was committed but must some way reasonably connect or tend to connect the accused with it, by confirming in some material particular the testimony of the complainant that the accused committed the crime
III. the corroboration must come from independent sources and thus, ordinarily, the testimony of one accomplice would not be sufficient to corroborate that of another
IV. the corroboration must come from independent sources and thus, ordinarily, the testimony of one accomplice would not be sufficient to corroborate that of another
A. I, III and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
42. Under section 8 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who among the following will rank as first as heir?
A. Brother’s son
B. Father’s sister
C. Daughter’s daughter’s daughter
D. Father
Ans. D
43. What is the position of the nominee under The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. Nominee retains the amount or property received under nomination and is thus entitled to it
B. Nominee entitled to receive amount or property holds it as trustee
C. A nominee is equivalent to the heir or legatee with regards to property or amount under nomination
D. None of the above
Ans. B
44. Which of the following statements hold true regarding the right of the trustees under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. If a trustee overpays the beneficiary out of the trust property, he is entitled to recover the amount from the beneficiary, but he has no right to reimburse the trust out of beneficiary interest
B. If any person gains from breach of trust by the trustee, such a person must indemnify the trustee to the extent of amount actually received, irrespective of the reason for the breach
C. He can apply to court for advice or direction in any matter related to management and administration of the trust
D. He cannot ask for examining and settlement of the trust accounts, even in cases where the duties of the trustee as such are completed
Ans: C
45. Harbouring robbers or dacoits is dealt under
A. Section 216 A of IPC
B. Section 217 A of IPC
C. Section 218 A of IPC
D. Section 219 A of IPC
Ans: A
46. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that specific performance of contracts connected with trusts is enforceable?
A. s. 12
B. s. 11
C. s. 10
D. None of these
Ans. B
47. A, intending to murder Z, by poison purchases poison and mixes the same with food which remains in A’s keeping. A, places the food on Z’s table or delivers it to Z’s servant to place it on Z’s table.
A. A has committed an offence under Section 305, IPC
B. A has committed an offence under Section 306, IPC
C. A has committed an offence under Section 307, IPC
D. A has committed an offence under Section 308, IPC
Ans: C
48. A trustee under general authority under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 __________________ subject to other provisions of the Act.
A. Can lease property for a period of twenty five years
B. Can lease property at the best yearly rent that can be obtained
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
49. A trustee, under the authority given under the provisions of the Indian trust Act, 1882 ____________, unless prohibited by the trust deed.
A. Can apply part of the trust property for maintenance of a minor, if such minor is a beneficiary of the trust
B. Can allow any time for payment for any debt
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
50. Which policy was formulated to address the issue of sustainable development:
(a) Housing and Habitat Policy
(b) Housing and Urban Development Policy
(c) Housing and Urban Reform Policy
(d) Housing and Sustainable Development Policy.
Ans. (a)
51. In a certain case the accused supplied aconite to a girl to be administered to her husband with the object of gaining his love and affection. The girl cooked the food and mixed the aconite powder there with and served the same to her in-laws as well. The husband survived but others died. The accused was convicted under Section 302 and 115, IPC. In which of the following it was upheld?
A. Bechu Main v Emperor, AIR 1930
B. Amode Ali Sikdar v. Emperor, AIR 1931
C. Peer Ali v. Emperor, Air 1920
D. Emperor v. Gurbaksh Singh AIR 1934
Ans: B
52. In which of the following circumstances can a trustee, under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, renounce his trust, once he has agreed to it?
A. With the consent of the beneficiary, in case beneficiary is capable of giving such consent
B. Permission of the civil court where the beneficiary resides
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: A
53. Taking gift, etc, to screen an offender from punishment if the offence be capital is dealt under
B. Section 211 of IPC
C. Section 212 of IPC
D. Section 213 of IPC
Ans: D
54. In case of a private trust having more than one trustee _______ , unless the instrument of trust provides otherwise.
A. Majority can bind the minority with regards to sale of property
B. All the trustees must agree before a major decision is taken
C. Majority can bind the minority if the value of property sold is less than 1% of the value of whole trust property
D. 75% of the trustees must agree before a major decision is taken
Ans: B
55. Which of the following statements hold true under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. Trustee is entitled by legislation to remuneration for work done by him
B. A trustee who has duty of selling trust property, is entitled to buy the property in his own right as long as the amount he pays is equal to or more than the market price of the property
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
56. The realist theory of personality explained legal personality as the product of:
(a) Concession by the State
(b) Bracketing by courts of a group of natural persons
(c) A group of natural persons developing a group mind
(d) Fiction recognized by law.
Ans. (c)
57. A is accused before the Court of Session of attempting to murder a police-officer whilst on his trial before B, a Sessions Judge. Applying Section 121, Indian Evidence Act:
A. B cannot be examined as to what occurred
B. B may be examined as to what occurred
C. B need not be examined as to what occurred
D. all of them
Ans. B
58. A sells B a horse and verbally warrants him sound. A gives B a paper in these words- “Bought of A a horse for Rs. 500”. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:
A. B cannot prove that verbal warranty
B. B may prove that verbal warranty
C. B does not need to prove that verbal warranty
D. none of them
Ans. B
59. According to Salmond, supreme legislation refers to:
(a) Colonial legislation
(b) Executive legislation
(c) Judicial legislation
(d) Law made by the Parliament.
Ans. (d)
60. A sues B for land of which B is in possession, and which, as A asserts, was left to A by the will of C, B’s father. If no evidence were given on either side, B would be entitled to retain his possession. Applying Section 102, Indian Evidence Act:
A. the burden of proof is on A
B. the burden of proof is on B
C. the burden of proof is on C
D. none of them
Ans. A
61. The Secretariat of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is located in:
(a) Male, Maldives
(b) New Delhi, India
(c) Kathmandu, Nepal
(d) Thimphu, Bhutan.
Ans. (c)
62. According to Section 24, which of the following must be contained in the inducement, threat or promise?
A. reference to the charge against the accused
B. proceeded from a person in authority
C. sufficiently given the accused person reasonable grounds for supposing that by making the confession he would gain any advantage or avoid any evil of a temporal nature in reference to the proceedings against him
D. all of them
Ans. D
63. The plaintiff instructed his Banker to deposit excise duty on his behalf in the Govt, treasury and debit the current account of plaintiff. The bank deposited the said sum in the treasury. Later the plaintiff cake to know, that the said amount was embezzled by the amount was not credited in the name of the plaintiff. If the plaintiff brings an action against the State for damages then the State is-
A. Not liable to compensate as it involved a sovereign function
B. Liable to compensable as the function Is a banking function which is not a sovereign function of the State
C. Liable to compensate as an ordinary employer
D. Not liable to but the individuals are liable to compensate
Ans: B
64. Aliqualis probatio means:
A. any kind of proof whatever, strictly in accordance with legal rules resorted to when no other better evidence can be adduced
B. any kind of proof whatever, although not strictly in accordance with legal rules, and not resorted to when any other better evidence can be adduced
C. specific proof although not strictly in accordance with legal rules, resorted to when no other better evidence can be adduced
D. none of them
Ans. B
65. The expression “facts in issue” is used in which of the following sections:
A. Section 5 and Section 6
B. Section 7 and Section 8
C. Section 9 and Section 11
D. all of them
Ans. D
66. Which of the following statements is true about Graphene:
(a) It is one of the thinnest, strongest two dimensional material
(b) It is one of the thinnest, strongest one dimensional material
(c) It is one of the thinnest, three dimensional material
(d) It is a form of plastic material of food thermal conductivity.
Ans. (a)
67. Who among the following was elected as President of 71st session of UN General Assembly:
(a) H.E. Mogens Lykketoft
(b) Vuk Teremic
(c) Evan Schneider
(d) Peter Thomson.
Ans. (d)
68. Which of the following statements are true in the event of the dismissal of a suit under s. 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. The dismissal does not raise any presumption that the defendant was, in fact, in possession
B. The dismissal operates as legal bar against aggrieved party to pursue his remedy of redelivery
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
69. In which “tree patent case” India won:
(a) “Neem patent case”
(b) “Aloevera patent case”
(c) “Tulsi patent case”
(d) “Sandalwood patent case”.
Ans. (a)
70. Which of the following statement is true when such a transferee was already in possession of a joint property and then executed an agreement of sale if the interest of one joint owner of the property?
B. His possession forbidden by the law, as to defeat specific performance
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D
71. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with fraud or collusion in obtaining judgment, or incompetence of Court, which may be proved?
A. Section 43
B. Section 48
C. Section 44
D. Section 39
Ans. C
72. The application under Section 73, Registration Act is not __________.
A. An appeal
B. An application to leave to appeal or to review
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
73. Which of the following is not regarded as being causes of a like nature?
A. Wrong party suing
B. Dismissal of prior suit for default
C. Dismissal of application for want of necessary affidavit or deposit
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
74. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 enables a defendant to raise in a suit of specific performance, all those defences which he is eligible, in a suit on contract?
A. s. 5
B. s. 6
C. s. 7
D. s. 9
Ans: D
75. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is the lead centre for Major Project such as:
(i) ASLV
(ii) PSLV
(iii) GSLV which one is correct
(a) (i)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
Ans. (d)
76. A is tried for the murder of B. Applying Section 43, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is possible?
A. the fact that B prosecuted A for libel and that A was convicted and sentenced is irrelevant under Section 6 as showing the motive for the fact in issue
B. the fact that B prosecuted A for libel and that A was convicted and sentenced is irrelevant under Section 7 as showing the motive for the fact in issue
C. the fact that B prosecuted A for libel and that A was convicted and sentenced is irrelevant under Section 8 as showing the motive for the fact in issue
D. none of them
Ans. C
77. Which of the following is true about Section 12, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. It does not require any prayer or application by a party for the exclusion of time in obtaining copies as such exclusion is made imperative by the section
B. It is the duty of the Court to exclude such time
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
78. Which of the following is true about the right to pay court-fee under Section 13, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. It had not been made subject to any permission being granted by the Court at the time of rejecting the application to sue or appeal in forma pauper is
B. It removes the difficulty which used to arise in cases where the Court made no order as to payment of court- fee while rejecting leave to sue as pauper giving rise to a plea that afterwards the Court having become functus officio, no such order as to payment of court- fee could be validly made
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
79. ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’ is contained in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 25-28
B. Article 29-30
C. Article 32
D. Article 19-22
Ans. A
80. Which of these is/are correct:
I. Repo Rate – the rate at which banks borrow from RBI
II. Reverse Repo Rate – the rate at which, the banks lend to RBI
III. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) – the amount of total deposits that banks are required to keep with the central bank
IV. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) – the percentage of total deposits that banks need to invest in the government bonds
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) All are correct.
Ans. (d)
81. Under which of the following, Section 13, Limitation Act, 1963 covers the refusal to allow the application to sue as pauper?
A. Order 30, Rule 4 C.P.C
B. Order 31, Rule 5 C.P.C
C. Order 32, Rule 6 C.P.C
D. Order 33, Rule 7 C.P.C
Ans. (D)
82. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
A. Article 22
B. Article 22(2)
C. Article 23
D. Article 24
Ans. D
83. In nuisance, a defendant is liable to unusually sensitive plaintiff.
A. Only in personal injury case
B. Only in property injury case
C. Both for personal injury and property injury case
D. None of the above
Ans: D
84. ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC) at present building and series of Satellites:
(a) IRS and INSAT
(b) PSLV and GSLV
(c) ASLV and PSLV
(d) ASLV and GSLV.
Ans. (a)
85. The headquarters of the Amnesty International is located in:
(a) London, United Kingdom
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) Oslo, Norway
(d) New York, United States.
Ans. (a)
86. Application for permission to sue as a pauper is to be presented by:
(a) person himself
(b) an authorised agent
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b).
Ans. (c)
87. Which of the following deals with the effect of non- production of documents in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 16, Rule 2
B. Order 13, Rule 2
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 16, Rule 22
Ans. B
88. For the purposes of Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963 which of the following must be considered?
A. In excluding the time during which a former civil proceeding was pending, the day on which that proceeding was instituted and the day on which it ended shall both be counted
B. A plaintiff or an applicant resisting an appeal shall be deemed to be prosecuting a proceeding
C. Misjoinder of parties or of causes of action shall be deemed to be a cause of like nature with defect of jurisdiction
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
89. Salmond enumerates five characteristics of legal rights. Four such characteristics are:
(1) Subject of Right
(2) Object of Right
(3) Content of Right
(4) Title of Right
The fifth characteristic is –
(a) Property in respect of which right is claimed
(b) Act of omission required by the right
(c) The legal reason for the existence of the rights
(d) The subject of the corresponding duty.
Ans. (b)
90. NASA will launch a balloon – based observatory called GUSTO, which stands for:
(a) Galactic/Extragalactic ULDB Spectroscopic Terahertz Observatory
(b) Galactic/Extragalactic UNDB Spectroscopic Terahertz Observatory
(c) Galactic/Extragalactic UMDB Spectroscopic Terahertz Observatory
(d) Galactic/Extragalactic UCDB Spectroscopic Terahertz Observatory.
Ans. (a)
91. Who among the following is known as the father of India’s Communication Revolution:
(a) Nandan Nilekani
(b) Azim Premji
(c) N.R. Naryaria Murthy
(d) Sam Pitroda.
Ans. (d)
92. The Lok Sabha cannot:
(a) express its no-confidence in the Council of Ministers by rejecting the Budget as money bill
(b) dismiss the Council of Ministers by moving an adjournment motion
(c) dismiss the Council of Ministers by pressing a vote of no-confidence against any individual minister
(d) dismiss the Council of Ministers by passing a vote of no-confidence against them.
Ans. (b)
93. A member of the Council of Ministers:
(a) must be a Member of Parliament before appointment as minister
(b) must become a Member of Parliament within 6 months of his appointment
(c) must become a Member of Lok Sabha within 6 months of appointment
(d) may be elected to Parliament within a year of his appointment.
Ans. (b)
94. Assertion (A): Article 300 of the Constitution has specifically removed the distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions with respect to government’s liability for tort in India.
Reason (R): Government is liable for tort which is the result of its non-sovereign function:
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
95. A, a magistrate in making a report to his superior officer casts an imputation on the character, is:
A. Justification
B. Fair comment
C. Absolute privilege
D. Qualified privilege
Ans: D
96. In case the fact shows that the spouse claiming divorce is in fact responsible for the state of affairs, the ground of irretrievable breakdown_______ be invoked, ______ the other spouse is willing to reside together.
A. Can, even when
B. Can, unless
C. Cannot, particularly when
D. Cannot, unless
Ans: C
97. Which of the following are the elements of the definition of ‘partnership’ used in section 4, Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
A. There must be an agreement entered into all the persons concerned
B. The agreement must be to share the profits of a business
C. The business must be carried by on by all or any of the persons concerned, acting for all
D. All of these
Ans: D
98. A beneficiary_________ has a right to the rents and profits of the trust property.
A. In case allowed by the trust instrument, and not otherwise
B. In case of minor, and not otherwise
C. In case not forbidden by the trust instrument
D. In case of widow and minor
Ans: C
99. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding essentials of a valid Mahomedan marriage?
A. A valid marriage can happen without witness under Shia law
B. A valid marriage can happen without father acting as wali
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
100. Public servant framing an incorrect record or writing with intent to save person from punishment or property from forfeiture is dealt under
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 218 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Ans: C
101. Commitment for trial or confinement by a person having authority, who knows that he is acting country to law is dealt under
A. Section 220 of IPC
B. Section 221 of IPC
C. Section 222 of IPC
D. Section 223 of IPC
Ans: A