Are you preparing for Judicial Service examination? Here are few questions on: 1. Constitution of India 2. Indian Evidence Act 3. Indian Penal Code 4. Hindu Law 5. Code of Civil Procedure 6. Limitation Act 7. Contract Act 8. Law of Succession 9. Code of Criminal Procedure 10. Specific Relief Act 11. Jurisprudence 12. Commercial Law 13. Mohammedan Law 14. Law of Torts 15. G.K.
1. In case of differences between two Houses of Parliament on an ordinary Bill, the issue is resolved by:
(a) President in consultation with the cabinet
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Convening a joint sitting of the two Houses
(d) the Supreme Court.
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following can be included in Right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
I. Right of a person not to be subjected to bonded labour or to unfair conditions of labour.
II. Right of a bonded labourer to rehabilitation after release.
III. Right to a decent environment and a reasonable accommodation.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. A
3. In which of the cases, domiciliary visit by the Police without the authority of a law, was held to be violative of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution assuming that a right of privacy was a fundamental right derived from the freedom of movement guaranteed by Article 19 (1) D of the Indian Constitutional as well as personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21?
A. Dr. Sudesh Jale v. State of Haryana
B. Kharak Singh v. State of U.P
C. Govind v. State of M.P
D. Neera Mathur v. L.I.C
Ans. B
4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha enjoys:
(a) the right to vote only in case of tie
(b) the right to vote like other members of the House
(c) no right to vote
(d) two votes – one in ordinary course and other in case of tie.
Ans. (a)
5. Who summons the meetings of the Parliament:
(a) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Speaker and Vice President.
Ans. (c)
6. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha holds office until:
(a) he ceases to be a member of the Rajya Sabha
(b) he resigns his office
(c) he is removed by a resolution passed by the majority of Rajya Sabha members
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
7. The President nominates _______ Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha:
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 7.
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with testimony to facts stated in document mentioned in Section 159?
A. Section 156
B. Section 160
C. Section 157
D. Section 160
Ans. B
9. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of entry in public record, made in performance of duty?
A. Section 31
B. Section 35
C. Section 40
D. Section 36
Ans. B
10. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with when leading questions may not be asked?
A. Section 139
B. Section 145
C. Section 140
D. Section 142
Ans. D
11. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of judgements?
I. Section 40
II. Section 41
III. Section 42
IV. Section 43
A. I and III
B. IV
C. II and IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
12. Which of the following test an approver has to fulfill for its acceptance?
A. it must be natural and credible, where this is prima facie lacking, there is really no question of further corroboration and the prosecution can only rely upon other pieces of evidence
B. even if a Court is inclined to accept the evidence as natural or convincing, it must be corroborated in material particulars with regard to the participation of the accused concerned
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
13. Which provision of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act will apply only when a matter is pending before the Court and not otherwise?
A. Section 53
B. Section 63
C. Section 73
D. Section 83
Ans. C
14. Which proviso of Section 92, Indian Evidence Act applies to cases where evidence is admitted to show that a contract is void, or voidable or subject to reformation, upon the ground of fraud, duress, illegality etc. in its inception?
A. Proviso (1)
B. Proviso (2)
C. Proviso (3)
D. Proviso (4)
Ans. A
15. Which of the following is the effect of Section 11(1), Limitation Act, 1963?
A. It is to apply the rule of limitation of this country from the date when the cause of action arose
B. It is to apply the rule of limitation of this country from the time when the right to institute an action in a foreign court begin to run
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
16. Under Section 12, Limitation Act, 1963 in computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the day from which such period is to be reckoned, shall be ________.
A. Included
B. Excluded
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
17. In computing under Section 12, Limitation Act, 1963, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of a decree or an order, any time taken by the court to prepare the decree or order before an application for a copy thereof is made __________.
A. Shall be excluded
B. Shall not be excluded
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
18. Section 12 will not apply to applications under which of the following sections of the Registration Act?
A. Section 70
B. Section 71
C. Section 72
D. Section 73
Ans. (D)
19. For invoking section 12(2), Limitation Act, 1963 which of the following is necessary?
A. To file a suit for judgment or order to an appropriate court
B. To apply for the copy of judgment or order to an appropriate court
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
20. Sub-sections (2) to (4) of the present Section 12, Limitation Act, 1963 refers specifically to which of the following types of proceedings?
I. Appeal
II. Application to leave to appeal
III. Application to revision
IV. Application to review
V. Application to set aside an award
A. I, III, V
B. II, IV, V
C. I, IVV
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
21. Which of the following statements hold true for torts?
I. Tort is a breach of public rights and duties which affect the whole community considered as a community
II. Motive is often taken into consideration in the case of a tort
III. In tort the wrongdoer is punishable by the State
IV. In tort the measure of damages is not strictly limited nor is it capable of being indicated with precision
V. In tort, the injured party brings an action VI. In tort, damages are liquidated
A. II, IV and V
B. I, II, III and VI
C. I, III and V
D. I, II, IV, V and VI
Ans: A
22. B throws water on C with the intention of getting him wet. The action is-
A. Neither assault nor battery
B. Battery in case water does not touch C
C. Assault in case water does not touch C
D. Battery, touching or not touching of water is immaterial
Ans: C
23. In order to discharge the burden of proof placed upon him, it is usually necessary for the plaintiff to prove specific acts or omissions on the part of the defendant which will qualify as negligent conduct. Sometimes, however, the circumstances are such that the court will be prepared to draw an inference of negligence against the defendant without having detailed evidence of what he did or did not do. This is known as:
A. Contributory negligence
B. res ipsa negligence
C. volunti non-fit injuria
D. last opportunity rule
Ans: B
24. When did the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 came into force?
A. 1st October, 1932
B. 2nd October, 1932
C. 3rd October, 1932
D. 4th October, 1932
Ans: A
25. Which of the following is the very purpose of deferring Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 to come into force from 1-10-1933?
A. It was to give sufficient time to the registered firms to enable them to bring suits
B. It was to give sufficient time to the unregistered firms to get themselves registered in order to enable them to bring suits
C. It was to give sufficient time to the unregistered firms to enable them to bring suits
D. None of these
Ans: B
26. ‘Business’ in section 1, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 includes every_______.
A. Trade
B. Occupation
C. Profession
D. All of these
Ans: D
27. ‘Third party’ in section 1, Indian Partnership Act is used in relation to_____.
A. A firm
B. A partner therein means any person who is not a partner in the firm
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
28. X, a vendor got an agreement of reconveyance from Y, the vendee and later purported to release his rights of reconveyance to Y. Property was in the possession of Y. X then sold the property to Z residing next door to X. This sale deed in favour of Z, made a mention of litigation between X and Y. Which of the following sections and clause of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 would apply to this case?
A. Z, was entitled to the protection of s. 19 (a) against the right of Y to enforce his right of release
B. Z, was not entitled to the protection of s. 19 (b) against the right of Y to enforce his right of release
C. Z, was entitled to the protection of s. 19 (c) against the right of Y to enforce his right of release
D. None of these
Ans: B
29. Which of the following view regarding whether a suit of specific performance would lie to enforce an award under the Arbitration Act, 1940 received statutory recognition in s. 43, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. The procedure for enforcing an award was only under s. 12, Specific Relief Act, 1963
B. The procedure for enforcing an award was only under s. 13, Specific Relief Act, 1963
C. The procedure for enforcing an award was only under s. 14, Specific Relief Act, 1963
D. None of these
Ans: C
30. Which of the following the Court cannot do under s. 6, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. To award damages
B. To direct defendant to pay to the plaintiff the cost of removing huts and filling up of excavation
C. To direct defendant to pay to the plaintiff the cost for removal of structures
D. All of these
Ans: D
31. “Jurisprudence is the philosophical aspect of knowledge of law” is said by:
(a) Austin
(b) Kelson
(c) Laski
(d) Cicero.
Ans. (d)
32. Who among the following said that “Jurisprudence is the formal science of positive law”:
(a) Holland
(b) Salmond
(c) Austin
(d) Bentham.
Ans. (a)
33. Who says that “Social Contract” is not a historical fact but a hypothetical construction of reason”:
(a) Hobbes
(b) Rousseau
(c) Locke
(d) Thomas Acquinas.
Ans. (b)
34. Who said that “Jurisprudence is the eye of law”:
(a) Maine
(b) Savigny
(c) Pound
(d) Laski.
Ans. (d)
35. “Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law” is said by:
(a) Holland
(b) Pound
(c) C.K. Allen
(d) Ihring.
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following statements hold true under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. A trustee cannot be held liable for destruction of the trust property in case he has acted as an ordinary person will deal with such property if it was his own, even when the trust deed states otherwise
B. Trustee is authorised to set title adverse to the beneficiaries in case salary payable to him remains unpaid for a period exceeding six months
C. A trustee is bound to furnish the full and accurate information as to the amount and state of trust property whenever a members make a request, irrespective of the reasonability of time of such request
D. When the trust has more than one beneficiary, the trustee is bound to be impartial, and must not execute the trust for the advantage of one at the expense of another
Ans: D
37. Which of the following statements hold true regarding investments made using the trust money under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, where there are no instructions given in the trust deed?
A. Money can be invested at the trustee’s discretion without any restriction
B. It can be invested in 5% 25 years secured debt issued by the Government of Ireland
C. It can be invested in share market
D. It can be invested in second mortgage of a property within the border of India
Ans: B
38. In which of the following cases is a trustee committing a breach of trust liable to pay interest under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
I. Where a trustee ought to have received interest, but he did not
II. Where he did not receive any interest
III. Where he may be fairly presumed to have received interest
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans: C
39. Which of the following statements hold true under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. A trustee who incurred losses for one portion of the trust property under section 23 of the Act, can set them against the profit he made on the other portion of the trust property
B. A trustee is liable for his predecessors default, unless he made reasonable enquiry to make certain that no such default existed on the date of acquiring office
C. A co-trustee who signs the receipt for the trust property is liable, even if he proves that he has not received the same
D. When two co-trustees jointly commit a breach of trust, they are individually liable to the beneficiaries, for the whole loss occasioned by such breach
Ans: D
40. A made a trust deed naming B as a trustee. The deed specified that the income from a certain business will be managed by B, and 75% of the income will be used for maintenance of C. It further stated that in case D decides to marry, the income will transfer from C to D on the date of latter’s marriage. D left India and married on 21st January 2009. B having no notice of the said marriage continued to pay the share of income to C. D returned to India on 28th March, 2011 and claimed his share of the profit. Which of the following statements will apply?
A. B is responsible to D for the income which he distributed to C from 21 st January 2009 to 28th March, 2011
B. B is responsible to D for the undistributed income remaining with him on 28th March, 2011 and future income
C. D can sue both B and C for recovering his share of income from the date of marriage, till the date of suit
D. None of these
Ans: B
41. A rule of Mahomedan law, which is well-settled in the view of ancient expositors, _______ be disregarded on the ground that it is illogical or unsound, ________ opposed to justice, equity and good conscience.
A. Can, even if it is not
B. Cannot, even if it is
C. Cannot, provided it is not
D. None of these
Ans: C
42. The scope and purpose of Section 2 of the Muslim Personal law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 is to _______
A. Repeal enactments which are against Mahomedan law, whether contained in section 6 of the Act or not
B. Abrogate customs and usage in so as far them have displaced the rules of Mahomedan law
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
43. The word ‘Shariat’ as used in the Muslim Personal law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 is synonym for the ________
A. Divine law
B. Way
C. Mahomedan Personal Law
D. Path to be followed
Ans: C
44. Which of the following sections of the Muslim Personal law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 deal with power of the State Government for prescribing authority under section 3 of the Act?
A. Section 3 (3)
B. Section 3 (2) (a)
C. Section 4 (2) (a)
D. Section 4 (3)
Ans: C
45. Which of the following sections give power to the State Government to prescribe fee for declaration under section 3 of the Muslim Personal law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937?
A. Section 3 (2) (b)
B. Section 4 (2) (b)
C. Section 4 (3)
D. None of these
Ans: B
46._________________ of intention to settle down in a particular place, the domicile of origin is retained.
A. Where there is absence
B. Even when there is presence
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: A
47. The word ancestor in clause (c) and (d) of section 3 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 includes ______.
A. Father
B. Grand Father
C. Father’s Brother
D. All of the above
Ans: A
48. A decree of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 _________ the status of the parties as married persons.
A. Does not terminate
B. Cannot terminate
C. Terminates
D. Partly terminate depending on circumstances
Ans: C
49. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ____________ that consent of parties is necessary for a valid marriage.
A. States in clear terms
B. States is confusing terms
C. Does not in terms state
D. None of the above
Ans: C
50. A husband who had developed illicit relations with another women maintain a petition for restitution of conjugal rights against ‘wife’ of such second marriage under section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
A. Can under certain circumstances
B. Must
C. Cannot under certain circumstances
D. Cannot
Ans: D
51. Failure of an earlier petition for grant of divorce on the grounds of desertion _________ subsequent petition for restitution of conjugal rights.
A. Will disentitle a
B Will not disentitle a
C. Will disentitle under certain circumstances a
D. Is a perquisite for a
Ans: A
52. Ramu a domestic hand committed the murder of three members of a family with intention to commit robbery. The crime was committed in cruel, heinous and diabolical manner.
A. The case falls under the rarest of rare category
B. Ramu should be sentenced to death
C. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: C
53. Giving false information respecting an offence committed is dealt under
A. Section 202 of IPC
B. Section 203 of IPC
C. Section 204 of IPC
D. Section 205 of IPC
Ans: B
54. False personation for the purpose of any act or proceeding in a suit or criminal prosecution, or for becoming bail or security is dealt under
A. Section 202 of IPC
B. Section 203 of IPC
C. Section 204 of IPC
D. Section 205 of IPC
Ans: D
55. Fraudulently obtaining a decree for a sum not due, or causing a decree to be executed after it has been satisfied or causing is dealt under
A. Section 210 of IPC
B. Section 211 of IPC
C. Section 212 of IPC
D. Section 213 of IPC
Ans: A
56. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of:
(a) Oxides of Sulphur
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(c) carbon monoxide and SPM
(d) Oxides of sulphur and ozone.
Ans. (b)
57. Light from nearest Star Alpha Centauri reaches earth in:
(a) 4.30 seconds
(b) 43 years
(c) 4.37 light years
(d) 4.3 minutes.
Ans. (c)
58. Mount Abu in Rajasthan is famous for:
(a) Prajapeeta Bhrahma Kumari World Centre
(b) Cool climate
(c) Hill station
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Ans. (d)
59. The famous Rock Garden is situated in:
(a) Bangalore
(b) Jaipur
(c) Bhopal
(d) Chandigarh.
Ans. (d)
60. A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is:
(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer.
Ans. (c)
61. Which river became the first in the world to get same legal rights as a human being:
(a) River Ganges
(b) River Amazon
(c) River Nile
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
62. Buddhism originated in:
(a) 525 BC
(b) 250 BC
(c) 100 BC
(d) 500 AD.
Ans. (a)
63. What is the name of first indigenously developed Rotavirus vaccine in India:
(a) Rotavac
(b) Rotamed
(c) Rotavit
(d) Rotavaccine.
Ans. (a)
64. Which of the following correspond to the member and observer countries of the SAARC:
1. India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Maldive
2. Iran, China, Japan, USA, South Korea, European Union, Myanmar, Mauritius and Australia
3. Pakistan, Nepal, India, Bangladesh
4. UK, USA, South Korea, North Korea European Union
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3.
Ans. (a)
65. Which one is correct regarding the term arm’s length:
(a) A transaction in which a buyer and a seller act independently
(b) A transaction in which a buyer and a seller cannot act independently
(c) A transaction in which a buyer and a seller has to act according to third party wishes
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
66. Which singer turned Union Minister has been appointed at the Vice-President of U-17 FIFA World Cup Committee:
(a) Babul Supriyo
(b) Kumar Sanu
(c) Palash Sen
(d) Hema Malini.
Ans. (a)
67. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole:
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming.
Ans. (b)
68. A separate homeland for Indian Muslims was first demanded by Muslim League at its………….. session in……… :
(a) Karachi, 1944
(b) Lahore, 1940
(c) Lucknow, 1928
(d) Hyderabad, 1947.
Ans. (b)
69. Operation Clean Money is started by:
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Income Tax Department
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Central Board of Direct Taxes.
Ans. (b)
70. The 17th Summit of Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) held in September 2016 was hosted by:
(a) Indonesia
(b) Egypt
(c) Malaysia
(d) Venezuela.
Ans. (d)
(a) 24th Constitution Amendment Act
(b) 25th Constitution Amendment Act
(c) 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
(d) 44th Constitution Amendment Act.
Ans. (c)
72. Which Fundamental Rights are available to only citizens:
(a) Article 15, 16, 19, 29
(b) Article 14, 15, 22, 29
(c) Article 15, 16, 21, 25
(d) Article 14, 16, 22, 29.
Ans. (c)
73. Dachigam sanctuary is located in:
(a) Gangtok
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Shimla
(d) Srinagar.
Ans. (d)
74. The country’s first atomic research reactor is:
(a) APSARA
(b) PURNIMA
(c) DHRUVA
(d) KAMINI.
Ans. (a)
75. Who is the new Director General of WTO:
(a) Robert Azevedo
(b) Pascal Lamy
(c) Peter Verghese
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
76. Which country recently became the 164th member of World Trade Organisation (WTO):
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Kazakhastan
(c) Russia
(d) Vanuatu.
Ans. (a)
77. The proposed Goods & Services Tax (GST) will subsume which among the following taxes:
1. Income Tax
2. Sales Tax
3. Excise Duty
4. Value Added Tax
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 2 & 3
(c) 2, 3 & 4
(d) 2 & 4.
Ans. (c)
78. Which among the following duties is levied by Government to control the export of a commodity so that commodity can be used by the local markets than in other countries:
(a) Customs Duty
(b) Excise Duty
(c) Anti-Dumping Duty
(d) Dumping Duty.
Ans. (a)
79. The Attorney-General shall receive such remuneration as the may determine:
(a) Government of India
(b) President
(c) Parliament by Law
(d) Parliament by Resolution.
Ans. (b)
80. Which one of the following legislative house can be abolished:
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Parishad
(d) Vidhan Sabha.
Ans. (c)
81. The headquarters of Indian Space Research Organization is at:
(a) Trivandrum
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Ahmedabad.
Ans. (c)
82. Which of the following statements is true about Graphene:
(a) It is one of the thinnest, strongest two dimensional material
(b) It is one of the thinnest, strongest one dimensional material
(c) It is one of the thinnest, three dimensional material
(d) It is a form of plastic material of food thermal conductivity.
Ans. (a)
83. In which of the following cities can one see the sun-shine overhead at noon:
(a) Delhi
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Trivandrum
(d) Bangalore.
Ans. (c)
84. Byssinosis disease is common in the workers of
A. rubber industry
B. ceramic industry
C. textile industry
D. iron and steel industry
Ans: C
85. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858):
1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
86. The President of India is:
(a) Elected
(b) Selected
(c) Appointed
(d) Nominated.
Ans. (a)
87. What is the Vedic name of the river Ravi?
A. Purushni
B. Chandrabhaga
C. Arjikiya
D. Satadri
Ans: A
88. Who translated the collection of South Indian tales into Sanskrit and titled the work as Kathasaritasagar?
A. Somdev
B. Kalhana
C. Jaideva
D. Shankaracharya
Ans: A
89. A person can be appointed as a guardian under Order XXXII, Rule 4 of CPC:
(a) on his oral consent
(b) on his consent in writing
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
90. A ‘next friend’ or guardian, under Order XXXII, Rule 7 of CPC:
(a) can enter into an agreement without the leave of the court but cannot compromise a suit
(b) can neither enter into an agreement nor compromise the suit on behalf of the minor without the leave of the court
(c) cannot enter into an agreement without leave of the court but enter into a compromise
(d) can enter into an agreement and also compromise in a suit on behalf of a minor without the leave of the court.
91. An agreement entered into or compromise, on behalf of a minor without the leave of the court, under Order XXXII, Rule 7 of CPC is:
(a) valid
(b) void
(c) voidable against all the parties other than the minor
(d) voidable against all the parties including the minor.
92. A ‘next friend’ or guardian, of a minor, in a suit:
(a) stands discharged automatically on attaining majority
(b) can be discharged if the minor on attaining majority elects to continue with the suit applies for the discharge
(c) can be discharged if the minor on attaining majority elects to continue with the suit but does not apply for the discharge of next friend or guardian
(d) all the above.
93. A ‘next friend’, under Order XXXII, Rule 8 of CPC can retire:
(a) without first procuring a fit person to replace him but not without giving security for costs already incurred
(b) not without first procuring a fit person to replace him and also not without furnishing security for costs already incurred
(c) not without first procuring a fit person to replace him but without furnishing security for costs already incurred
(d) without first procuring a fit person to replace him and without furnishing security for cost already incurred.
94. Under Order XXXII, Rule 9 of CPC, a ‘next friend’ of a minor can be removed:
(a) if he ceases to reside in India during the pendency of the suit
(b) where the interest of next friend becomes adverse to that of the minor
(c) where the next friend does not do his duty
(d) all the above.
95. Provisions relating to suits by indigent persons are contained in:
(a) Order XXXII of CPC
(b) Order XXXIII of CPC
(c) Order XXXIV of CPC
(d) Order XXXV of CPC.
96. A person is an indigent person within the meaning of Order XXXIII, Rule 1 of CPC, if he is not possessed of:
(a) sufficient means to pay the fee payable on the plaint
(b) any means to pay the fee payable on the plaint
(c) sufficient means for his livelihood
(d) all the above.
Ans. (a)
97. A suit instituted by a minor or a lunatic without a next friend, under Order XXXII, Rule 2 of CPC, the same is liable to be:
(a) struck of
(b) stayed
(c) proceeded with in ordinary course
(d) proceeded with if the defendant consents.
98. A person can act as a ‘next friend’ if he is:
(a) major
(b) sound mind
(c) not having any interest adverse to that of a minor or lunatic residing in India
(d) fulfilling all the three requirements.
99. Provisions relating to suit by or against a minor, are contained in:
(a) Order XXXIII of CPC
(b) Order XXXII of CPC
(c) Order XXXI of CPC
(d) Order XXXIV of CPC.
100. On the retirement, removal or death of a ‘next friend’, under Order XXXII, Rule 10 of CPC, the suit is liable to be:
(a) stayed
(b) dismissed
(c) rejected
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (a)
101. The person on who would have been governed by The Travancore Nanjinad Vellala Act of 1108 will come under_____________ as per Section 3 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
A. Aliyasantana Law
B. Marumakkattayam Law
C. Nambudri Law
D. None of the above
Ans. B
102. Which of the following changes happened due to Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005?
I. In case of Mitakshara Law daughter is now allotted the same share as is allotted to a son
II. Daughter is now liable for the recovery of debts due from her father, grandfather and great grandfather if such debts occur before the commencement of Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act of 2005
III. Daughter has been made subject to the same liabilities in respect of the coparcenary property as that of Son
A. Ill only
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. B
103. Which of the following is true for section 6 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. Daughter of a coparcener becomes a coparcener in her own right at birth
B. Daughter of a coparcener becomes a coparcener in her own right from the date of commencement of Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
C. Daughter of a coparcener becomes a coparcener in her own right on attaining maturity
D. None of the above
Ans. A
104. Kaumaba falls under which of the following systems?
A. Marumakkattayam
B. Nambudri
C. Aliyasantana
D. Sthanamdar
Ans. C
105. What does the word Sthanam means?
A. Self acquired property under a joint family system
B. Common property under joint family system
C. A form of joint family prevalent in Malabar Coast
D. The status and the attendant property of senior rajas
Ans. D
106. A agrees to pay B 1,000 rupees if B will marry A’s daughter C. C was dead at the time of the agreement.
A. The agreement is void
B. The agreement is not void
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
107. A agrees to pay B 1,000 rupees if two straight lines should enclose a space.
A. The agreement is void
B. The agreement is not void
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
108. Which of the following deals with enforcement and consequences of agent’s contracts in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 220
B. Section 219
C. Section 226
D. Section 210
Ans. (C)
109. Which of the following deals with enforcement of contracts contingent on an event happening in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 22
B. Section 28
C. Section 19
D. Section 32
Ans. (D)
110. Which of the following deals with how delivery to bailee is to be made in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 149
B. Section 135
C. Section 145
D. Section 140
Ans. (A)
111. Which of the following deals with how revocation of proposal is made in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 2
B. Section 6
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
Ans. (B)
112. Which of the following deals with implied promise to indemnify surety in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 145
B. Section 135
C. Section 147
D. Section 140
Ans. (A)
113. Which of the following deals with liability of co-sureties bound in different sums in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 149
B. Section 135
C. Section 147
D. Section 140
Ans. (C)
114. Which of the following deals with party rightfully rescinding contract entitled to compensation in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 75
B. Section 78
C. Section 73
D. Section 70
Ans. (A)
115. Harbouring an offender, if the offence be capital is dealt under
A. Section 212 of IPC
B. Section 213 of IPC
C. Section 214 of IPC
D. Section 215 of IPC
Ans: A
116. Which of the following is not an ingredient of an offence under Section 116, IPC?
A. Abetment of the commission of the offence
B. the offence abetted should be punishable with death or imprisonment of life
C. the offence abetted was actually not committed; or that no hurt/injury was caused in pursuance/consequence of such abetment
D. the accused was present while the act was being committed
Ans: D
117. What are the different states of facts that may rise after an abetment?
A. No offence may be committed. In this case the offender is punishable under Section 115 and 116 of the IPC for the mere abetment to commit crime.
B. The very act at which the abetment aims may be committed, and will punishable under Section 109 and 110 of the IPC
C. Some act differently but naturally flowing from the act abetted may be perpetrated, in which case the abettor will fall under the penalties of Section 111, 112 and 113 of the IPC
Ans: D
118. False charge of offence mode with intent to injure, if offence charged be capital or punishable with imprisonment for life is dealt under
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 211 of IPC
Ans: D
119. The accused were charged under Section 302/148 and 149 of IPC as they were alleged to have caused death by hurling of bomb but direct bomb blast injuries were not found on the body of the deceased and there was substantial difference in ocular and medical evidence as to the injuries and cause of death. Therefore the conviction of the accused was set aside. It was observed by the Court that once an accused is acquitted u/s 148 the conviction u/s 149 IPC, could not be ordered. In which of the following case this was upheld?
A. Bhupinder Singh v. State of Punjab, 1997
B. Boddapati Venkataramaih v. State, 1996
C. Gokul v. State of Rajasthan 1972
D. Durgi v. State, 2001
Ans: B
120. A shoots at Z with the intention to kill him, under such a circumstances that, if death ensued:
A. A is liable to punishment under Section 305, IPC
B. A is liable of punishment under Section 306, IPC
C. A is liable of punishment under Section 307, IPC
D. A is liable of punishment under Section 308, IPC
Ans: C
121. A case in Patna held that the language of Section 201, IPC is perfectly general and there is really no jurisdiction for holding that the offender cannot be punished for concealing evidence or causing of disappearance of evidence of the commission of the offence by himself. In which of the following this was upheld?
A. Maraj Alam v. State, 2008
B. State v. Anupam Das, 2008
C. Ram Kumari v. Rex, AIR 1949
D. State of Kerala v. Markose AIR 1962
Ans: C