GK questions and answers on the constitution of India especially compiled for school, college and law students!
1. Article 131 A of the Indian Constitution i.e. exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to the question as to constitutional validity or Central laws is inserted by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 and omitted by the:
A. 44th Amendment Act
B. 43rd Amendment Act
C. 49th Amendment Act
D. 50th Amendment Act
Ans: B
2. Which of the following statements regarding Practice and Procedure of Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is/ are found to be correct?
I. The Supreme Court will not entertain a plea which was never raised before the High Court.
II. The Supreme Court would not, in an appeal under Article 132 of the Indian Constitution interfere with a finding of fact.
A. I and II
B. Only II
C. Only I
D. None of them
Ans: A
3. A proceeding is a civil proceeding only if it relates to a civil right and where the action which is challenged affects the civil rights of the petitioner.
On this principle, which of the following have been held to be or treated as ‘Civil Proceedings’?
I. For a writ to quash an order terminating the Petitioner’s service
II. For a writ to quash an order of the Board of Revenue in relation to a proceeding for ejectment
III. For a writ to quash proceeding under the Taxation of Income Act, 1947
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. None of them
Ans: A
4. Which of the following statements regarding instances of mixed questions of fact and law is/are correct under Article 133 of the Indian Constitution?
I. Whether a custom has been established.
II. Whether there has been a changeover of sovereignty.
III. Whether on the facts found a transaction is a mortgage by deposit of title deeds.
A. All are correct
B. All are incorrect
C. I and III
D. I and II
Ans: A
5. Pick out the correct statements regarding the criminal Appeals.
I. If the High Court, on appeal, reverses the decision of acquittal of the accused person and sentences him to death.
II. If the High Court has withdrawn for trial to itself any case from a subordinate court and after trial, sentenced him to death.
III. The High Court shall have the power, subject to rules to be framed by the Supreme Court, to certify any criminal case as fit for appeal to the Supreme Court.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. All of them
Ans: D
6. Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the___________ shall also have jurisdiction and powers with respect to any matter to which the provision of Article 13 3 or Article 134 of the Indian Constitution do not apply if jurisdiction and powers in relation to that matters were exercisable by the Federal Court?
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. President
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: A
7. In which of the following cases has Special Leave Petition (SLP) has been held to be not maintainable?
A. Against a deceased person
B. Meagre amount involved in the matter
C. Against the High Court’s rejecting review petition
D. All of them
Ans: D
8. In a criminal case, the Supreme Court will grant special leave to appeal only in those cases:
A. Where it is shown that exceptional and special circumstances exist
B. In exist substantial and grave injustice has been done
C. Where the case in question presents features of sufficient gravity to warrant a review of the decision appealed against
D. All of them
Ans: D
9. According to Article 137 of the Indian Constitution subject to the provision of any law made by Parliament or any rules made under Article 145, the___________ shall have the power to review any judgment pronounces or order made by it?
A. High Court
B. Supreme Court
C. President
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: A
10. Which of the following statements regarding the enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is/are found to be correct?
I. The Supreme Court shall have such further jurisdiction and powers with respect to any of the matters in the Union list as Parliament may by law confer.
II. The Supreme Court shall have such further jurisdiction and powers with respect to any matter as the Government of India and the Government of any state may by special agreement confer, if Parliament by law provides for the exercise of such jurisdiction and powers by the Supreme Court.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C
11. Such supplemental powers which are conferred upon the Supreme Court by the Parliament and are not inconsistent with any of the provisions of this Constitution desirable for the purpose of enabling the Court more effectively to exercise the jurisdiction conferred upon it by or under this constitution are known as
A. Ancillary Powers
B. Advisor Powers
C. Original Powers
Ans: A
12. Regarding the interpreter of the Constitution-
I. The Supreme Court is the final arbiter on the interpretation of the Constitution.
II. It is the duty of the Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution.
III. It is the duty of the Supreme Court to uphold the Constitutional values and enforce Constitutional limitations as the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution.
A. All are correct
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
Ans: A
13. Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. All are correct
B. I and II
C.I and III
D. II and III
Ans: A
14. By reason of the provision under Article 142 of the Indian Constitution, it is competent for the Supreme Court to do substantial justice:
A. to extend the benefit of its judgment to a case which is not in appeal,- where the interest of justice so requires
B. to override any interim order obtained from a subordinate court which might defeat the decree passed by the Supreme Court
C. to make some other order where the judgment of the High Court was otherwise liable to be set aside
D. All of them
Ans: D
15. All authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this regard?
I. Where the contemnor is the Union of India, the Court will proceed against the Secretary of the relevant ministry.
II. Instead of proceeding in contempt, the Supreme Court may award exemplary costs against the defaulting Government.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans: A
16. Appointment of officers and servants of the Supreme Court shall be made by the _______
A. President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister
D. President in consultation with Council of Ministers
Ans: B
17. Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be appointed by the:
A. President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister
D. Council of Ministers
Ans: A
18. The administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (C.A.G.) including all salaries, allowances and pensions shall be charged upon_______.
A. Consolidated Fund
B. Contingency Fund
C. Treasury Bill
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: A
19. Which of the following statements regarding the Auditor Reports is/are found to be correct?
I. The reports of Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the President, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
II. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C
20. The executive power of the state shall be vested in the ________.
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. Council of Ministers
D. All of them
Ans: B
21. Which of the following statements regarding the term of office of Governor is/are correct?
I. The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
II. Subject to the foregoing provisions of Article 156 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date of which he enters upon his office.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans: A
22. The Governor shall be entitled to such emoluments allowances and privileges as may be determined by the______.
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. High Court
Ans: B
23. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Article 161 of the Indian Constitution confers upon the Governor a ‘Pardoning power’ of the same nature as enjoyed by the British Crown or the American Sovereign and the scope of the power should be understood accordingly.
II. The power of Governor to grant remission under Article 161 of the Constitution is discretionary and a matter of policy.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans: C
24. The State Executive may make rules regulating any matter within the legislative competence of the State legislature, without prior legislative authority, except where a law so framed, would:
A. Affect a fundamental right
B. Violate any provision of the constitution which requires legislation
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
25. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The Governor has certain special responsibilities under Article 371(2), 371A(l)(b) of the Indian Constitution which the Governor has to discharge according to directions issued by the President, and, therefore without the need to consult his Council of Ministers.
II. There are certain functions which cannot possibly by exercised by the Governor on ministerial advice, e.g., reporting to the President under Article 356(1) of the Indian Constitution reserving a Bill for consideration of President, under Article 200(1) of the Indian Constitution.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans: C
26. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the______________
A. Prime Minister
B. Governor
C. President
D. Vidhan Sabha
Ans: B
27. A fortiori means:
A. A statement which concludes that nothing takes place, because causes much weaker than those which operate to bring it about are effective in another case
B. An argument which concludes that something does not take place, because causes much stronger than those which operate to bring it about are effective in another case
C. An argument which concludes that something does take place, because causes much weaker than those which operate to bring it about are effective in another case
D. None of them
Ans: C
28. In which of the following states shall there be a minister in charge of tribal welfare?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Jharkhand
Ans: D
29. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State
II. A minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a minister
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans: A
30. Which of the following statements regarding the duty of Advocate General is/are correct?
A. To give advice to the Governor of the State
B. To perform other duties of a legal character assigned to him by the Governor
C. To discharge the functions conferred on him by or under this constitution
D. All of them
Ans: D
31. Absolutism means:
A. State or quality of being absolute
B. A sort of government, in which public power is vested in some person or persons, unchecked and uncontrolled by any law or institution
C. Unconditional power or sovereignty vested in a monarch, autocrat or oligarchy
D. All of them
Ans: D
32. All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the____________.
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. Speaker
Ans: A
33. Accession:
A. Is a mode of acquiring property as an addition to existing property by natural growth or by application of human labour
B. Is the means by which title to the increments to one’s property movable or immovable, is acquired, whether by natural or artificial means (as) accession of a province to an empire
C. Applies to the acquisition of title to the increments to one’s movable property, brought about by artificial means, such as labour or the addition of material other than the intermixture of goods or things of the same kind
D. All of them
Ans: D
34. For every State there shall be a legislature which shall consist of the__________ and ____________.
A. Governor, State Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council
B. Chief Minister, Council of Ministers and State Legislative Assembly
C. Governor, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
D. Governor, Chief Minister and High Court
Ans: A
35. What is the meaning of ‘acquisition’ in Article 31 of the Constitution of India?
A. It means the procuring of property or the taking of it permanently or temporarily
B. It strictly means the acquisition of legal title by the State in the property taken in possession of
C. It strictly means the loss of legal title by the State in the property taken in possession of
D. None of them
Ans: A
36. Subject to the provisions of Article 333 of the Indian Constitution, the legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than___________ members and not less than_______ members chosen by direct election.
A. 425, 60
B. 500, 40
C. 500, 60
D. 545, 80
Ans: C
37. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall in no case be less than________.
A. 32
B. 40
C. 60
D. 30
Ans: B
38. The number of members of Legislative Council elected by the members of Legislative Assembly is:
A. One-third
B. One-fourth
C. One-sixth
D. One-twelfth
Ans: A
39. Every Legislative Assembly, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for______________ from the date appointed for its first meeting
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. Permanent House
D. 4 years
Ans: B
40. Actual malice is:
I. Time spent by a Judge on duty as a Judge or in the performance of such other functions as he may, at the request of the President of India, undertake to discharge.
II. The vacations excluding any time during which the Judge is absent on leave.
III. The joining time on transfer from a High Court to the Supreme Court or from one High Court to another or from the Supreme Court to a High Court.
IV. The time spent by a Judge on duty as a Judge of a former Indian High Court.
V. The time spent by a Judge to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court as an ad hoc Judge under Article 27 of the Constitution.
VI. The vacation (excluding any time during which the Judge was absent on leave) taken by a Judge as a Judge of a former Indian High Court.
A. I, II, V, VI
B. II, III, IV, VI
C. III, IV, V
D. All of them
Ans: D
41. The tenure of the State Legislative Council is _____________
A. 2 years
B. 6 years
C. Permanent House
D. 5 years
Ans: C
42. Minimum age required for a person to be elected in the State Legislative Assembly is
A. 30 years
B. 25 years
C. 35 years
D. 21 years
Ans: B
43. The maximum gap between the sittings of two session of the State legislature is
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 weeks
D. 1 month
Ans: A
44. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The Governor may from time to time prorogue the House or either House.
II. The Governor may dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans: C
45. In which of the following conditions shall the Governor address the Legislative Assembly or both Houses assembled together?
A. At the Commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly
B. At the commencement of the First session of each year
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
46. Amicus curiae means:
A. One, who voluntarily or on invitation of the Court, instructs the Court on a matter of law concerning which the latter is doubtful or mistaken,
B. One who informs him of facts, a knowledge of which is necessary to a proper disposition of the case
C. One who not being retained in a cause volunteers to express his views or make suggestions for the information of the Court
D. All of them
Ans: D
47. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Non-member ministers shall not be entitled to vote in the legislature or any committee thereof.
II. Non-member minister shall cease to be a minister at the end of six months from his non membership.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: A
48. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
II. Speaker or Deputy Speaker may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Assembly passed by a majority of all the members of the Assembly.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: A
49. Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly shall submit his resignation to the________________
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Deputy Speaker
D. Chief Justice
Ans: C
50. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. At any sitting of the Legislative Assembly, while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the speaker shall not preside.
II. The Speaker shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the Legislative Assembly while any resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in the Assembly.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both are incorrect
D. I and II
Ans: D
51. On which date the Supreme Court upheld the OBC quota in Central Educational Institutions clearing the way for reservation of 27% seats for Backward Classes:
A. 10th April, 2008
B. 8th April, 2008
C. 1st April, 2008
D. 20th April, 2008.
Ans: A
52. In which recent case it has been held that status of Scheduled Tribes to be determined with reference to the entries issued by State Government under the said 1950 Constitution order:
A. Union of India v. S. Krishnan
B. State of Maharashtra v. Milind
C. Palgat Jilla Thandan Samudhaya Samrakshna Samithi v. State of Kerala.
D. None of the above.
Ans: A
53. Which one of the under mentioned right is guaranteed to citizens as freedom of religion under Article 19:
A. right to vote
B. right to citizenship
C. right to contest election
D. right to assemble peacefully without arms.
Ans: D
54. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that harmony and balance in fundamental rights and directive principles is the basic feature of Indian Constitution:
A. Keshwananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
B. Minerva Mills v. UOI
C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D. Waman Rao v. UOI.
Ans: A
55. On which one of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State:
A. speech and expression
B. peaceful assembly
C. association or Union
D. movement.
Ans: A
56. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights:
A. Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab
B. Kasturi Lai v. State of U.P.
C. Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
D. Nilabeti Bechara v. State of Orissa.
Ans: C
57. The phrase ‘subjected to restriction by any authority’ means:
A. it is a restriction which prompts the whims and fancy of the executives
B. it is inconsistent and repugnant to the fundamental rights
C. that the limitations imposed upon a person in the enjoyment of a right should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature beyond what is required in the interest of the public
D. any type of unquestionable restriction by the authority.
Ans: C
58. Article 19(1)(d) provides right to move freely throughout the territory of India. This right is:
A. subject to reasonable restriction for certain and specific purposes
B. absolute and unchallengeable
C. not subjected to any restriction
D. guaranteed and any restriction is infringement.
Ans: A
59. Article 19(1)(g) provides to practice any profession or any occupation throughout the territory of India. With reference to this give correct response to the following:
A. business in sale of literature including pornography
B. business in intoxicating drugs and liquor
C. business in adulterated foodstuff
D. none of these.
Ans: D
60. Reasonable restrictions on freedom to assemble can be imposed:
A. in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India or public order
B. in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India
C. in the interest of general public and public order
D. in the interest of general public, unity, integrity and sovereignty of India.
Ans: A
61. Which of the following are prohibited without the consent of President of India according to Article 18:
A. conferment of title
B. accepting any title from foreign state
C. accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any foreign state
D. all of the above.
Ans: C
62. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) means:
A. no one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence
B. one can be tried several times for the same offence
C. punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision
D. one can be tried more than once but punished only once.
Ans: A
63. The expression ‘prosecution’ under Article 20(2) contemplates:
A. a person must be accused of an offence
B. the proceedings should not be under a law which creates offences
C. guilt is not criterion for prosecution
D. prosecution is possible only after the final verdict from the court.
Ans: A
64. Article 20(3) forbids to compel a person ‘accused’ to say something from his personal knowledge relating to the charge:
A. the statement is true
B. even if the accused is not charged with an offence he cannot be compelled to state anything against somebody
C. none of the above
D. both (a) and (c) are correct.
Ans: A
65. According to Article 22(3), fundamental rights guaranteed to arrested persons in Article 22(1) and (2) do not apply to:
A. enemy aliens
B. persons arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention
C. none of the above
D. both (a) & (b) are correct.
Ans: D
66. Article 20(1) protects against ex-post facto law. Ex-post facto law means:
A. law which imposes penalty retrospectively
B. penalty is nullified
C. penalty is enhanced with respect to the law in force
D. the accused is not benefited as it enhances the punishment.
Ans: A
67. Right to travel abroad is a part of ‘personal liberty’ as envisaged under Article 21:
A. the statement is true
B. the statement is incorrect
C. the right to travel abroad is person’s personal liberty but within the procedure established by law
D. this article deals with personal liberty in India only and not for the travel abroad.
Ans: A
68. Preventive detention according to Article 22 can be enforced:
A. only during the time of communal violence
B. during the period of emergency
C. in normal times
D. can be enforced in the democracy with the permission of the President of India.
Ans: C
69. According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:
A. traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour
B. monopoly of trade
C. sale of incenses
D. visit to terrorist infected areas.
Ans: A
70. The expression ‘minority’ in Article 30 means any community which is:
A. less than 50% of the population of a particular State as a whole
B. 40% only
C. it is determined on the basis of the entire population of the country
D. none of the above.
Ans: A
71. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to:
A. citizens and non-citizens
B. natural persons as well as artificial persons
C. citizen only
D. all persons who have juristic personality.
Ans: A
72. Doctrine of self-incrimination enacted in Article 20(3) means:
A. no person accused of an offence can be compelled to be witness against himself.
B. no person accused of an offence can be compelled to be witness against others
C. no advocate accused of an offence can be compelled to give evidence against himself
D. no person accused of an offence can be judge against himself.
Ans: A
73. The protection of Article 20(3) is not available to:
A. confession of guilt made in police custody by words
B. confession made through intelligible gestures under compulsion
C. confession made through the production of document or thing under compulsion
D. confession of guilt made to a friend who visits the accused who is in police custody.
Ans: D
74. In which case it was held that “taking specimen fingerprints and handwritings from accused is not hit by Article 20(3) as being “witness against himself”:
A. State through SPE & CBI, A.P. v. M. Krishna Mohan
B. Jaya Sinha v. State of Karnataka
C. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Raj Kumari
D. None of the above.
Ans: A
75. Right to life means:
A. right to remain alive
B. right to survive in the world
C. right to have all limbs and faculties intact
D. right to continue to breath.
Ans: C
76. In which case it was held that your prohibition of men below 25 years for the employment in Hotels and Bars is violative of right of livelihood:
A. Deepa v. Hotel Association of India
B. R.K. Group of Hotels v. Hotel Association of India
C. Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India
D. None of the above.
Ans: C
77. The following are not included in the right to personal liberty:
A. Right to go abroad
B. Right to undertrial prisoners not to be detained for unreasonably long period
C. Right to human dignity
D. Right not to be detained beyond 24 hours in police custody.
Ans: D
78. The words ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 means:
A. that due process of law must be followed
B. a procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority
C. the same things as ‘due process of law’
D. a law which is reasonable, fair and just.
Ans: D
79. Constitution 86th Amendment, 2002 inserted the provision for right to education which provides for that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. The age of such children should be:
A. 7 to 12 years
B. 6 to 14 years
C. 12 to 18 years
D. 12 year only
Ans: B
80. The following are not included in the right to personal liberty:
A. Right not to be tortured
B. Right to free legal aid
C. Right to equality of wages
D. Freedom from arrest.
Ans: D
81. According to Article 22(4) no detention of any person is possible without the intercession of the Advisory Board for a period exceeding:
A. three months
B. two months
C. twelve months
D. less than two months.
Ans: A
82. It is obligatory on the part of detaining authority to give to a person in preventive detention:
A. an opportunity to make a representation against his detention at the earliest.
B. an opportunity of personal hearing
C. an opportunity to be heard through a lawyer of his choice
D. an opportunity to appeal against his detention.
Ans: A
83. Article 25 guarantee freedom of religion, but it is subject to:
A. public order, morality, health and other fundamental rights
B. public order, morality and health
C. public order, morality, health and sovereignty and integrity of India
D. public order, morality and secularism.
Ans: A
84. Article 25 guarantees to all persons equally:
A. freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion
B. freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion
C. freedom to profess, practice and propagate their religion
D. freedom of religion.
Ans: A
85. Article 29 guarantees the right to preserve one’s own culture, language, script and right to admission to State maintained or State-aided educational institutions is guaranteed to:
A. every citizen
B. every person residing in India
C. all individuals, citizens and non-citizens
D. all sections of citizens residing in India, in regard to former right and to every citizen of India whether or not residing in India, in regard to latter.
Ans: D
86. Article 30(2) lays down that there cannot be any discrimination in giving aid to educational institution on the ground of:
A. institution being managed by the minority
B. institution is managed by the religious or linguistic minority
C. institution managed by religious, cultural and linguistic minority
D. institution is managed by cultural, religious, linguistic minority or majority.
Ans: B
87. Under Article 30(1) the right to establish and administer educational institution belongs to:
A. Religious and linguistic minorities
B. All people of India
C. Minorities as well as majorities
D. All citizens of India.
Ans: A
88. The remedial fundamental right, the backbone of fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 32 is available to:
A. Indian citizens only
B. Indian citizens as well as foreigners
C. all persons, natural or artificial, citizens as well as non-citizens.
D. all natural persons, Indian citizens or non- citizens.
Ans: C
89. For the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights:
A. a writ petition must be first moved in the High Court
B. writ petition cannot be filed directly in the Supreme Court
C. a writ petition can be directly moved in the Supreme Court.
D. a writ petition can be directly moved in the Supreme Court with its leave.
Ans: C
90. The Supreme Court’s power to issue writs under Article 32 for the enforcement of fundamental rights:
A. is restricted to the issuance of five writs
B. is not restricted to five writs. It has power to issue any order or directions as it may deem appropriate in a case
C.is restricted to the issuance of writs of mandamus and prohibition
D. is restricted to a traditional common writs.
Ans: B
91. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution under Right to Freedom of Religion deals with:
A. Freedom of conscience
B. Freedom of free profession
C. Freedom of practice and propagation of religion
D. All of them
Ans: D
92. According to clause (1) of Article 25, of the Indian Constitution the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of:
A. Public order
B. Morality
C. Health
D. All of them
Ans: D
93. Which of the following conditions is/are essential in order to constitute a religious denomination?
A. A common organisation
B. Designation by a distinctive name
C. A Common faith
D. All of them
Ans: D
94. Which of the following have been held not to be essential to the relevant religions?
A. The sacrifice of a cow, in relation to the Muslim religion
B. The right of a denomination to manage its own affairs in matters of religion is not infringed by the state spending money, in a secular way, on works of public utility in the name of a religious leader of that denomination
C. The management of an institution to promote international understandings as distinguishes from the propagation of a particular religion
D. All of them
Ans: D
95. ‘No taxation for the purpose of religion’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 27
B. Article 28
C. Article 26
D. Article 26(1)
Ans: A
96. ‘Cultural and Educational Rights’ is mentioned as Fundamental right in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 23-24
B. Article 25-28
C. Article 32
D. Article 29-30
Ans: D
97. “Right to minorities to established and administered educational institutions” is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. 29
B. 30
C. 31
D. 32
Ans: B
98. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Minority’ is/are found to be correct?
I. The ‘minority’ referred to in Article 30 of the Indian Constitution must be a minority based either on religion or language, need not be both.
II. For the purposes of Article 30(i), of the Indian Constitution a community may constitute a minority based on language, even though they may not have a separate script; it would be enough if they have a separate spoken language.
A. Both are correct
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Both are incorrect
Ans: A
99. Which of the following general principles relating to establishment and administration of educational institutions by minorities has been summarized by the Supreme Court?
I. The right conferred on minorities under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution are only to ensure equality with the majority and not intended to place the minorities in a more advantageous position vis-a-vis the majority.
II. The right to establish and administer educational institutions is not absolute, nor does it include the right to maladminister.
III. Subject to the eligibility conditions/qualifications prescribed by the state being met, the unaided minority educational institutions will have the freedom to appoint teachers/lectures by adopting any rational procedure of selection.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
Ans: C
100. Which of the following Amendment Acts caused the omission of Article 31 of the Indian Constitution from the list of fundamental rights?
A. 44th Amendment Act
B. 42nd Amendment Act
C. 61st Amendment Act
D. 40th Amendment Act
Ans: A
101. “Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc.” is an essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 31
B. Article 31 A
C. Article 31 B
D. Article 31 C
Ans: B
102. Which of the following laws cannot be covered by Article 31A (1) A of the Indian Constitution, which is confined to laws for agrarian reform?
A. Acquisition of ‘arrears of rent’ due to a landlord
B. Housing scheme and slum clearance, in the neighbourhood of a big city
C. Taking away non-agrarian lands used by industrial or commercial undertaking for distribution among the landless
D. All of them
Ans: D
103. ‘Validation of certain Acts and Regulations’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 31
B. Article 31 A
C. Article 31 B
D. Article 31 C
Ans: C
104. Article 31C of the Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following rights?
A. Acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule
B. Saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles
C. Power to amend the Acts specified in the Ninth Schedule
D. None of them
Ans: B
105. The right guaranteed by Article_______ of the Indian Constitution shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution.
A. 30
B. 29
C. 31
D. 32
Ans: D
106. An application under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution does not lie in which of the following cases?
I. A person, who has entered into a voluntary settlement under the provision of a statute, cannot challenge the constitutionality of the statute under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution until the settlement is cancelled in appropriate proceedings.
II. The Court will not, under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution interfere with an administrative order, however erroneous, where the constitutionality of the statute or the order made there under is not challenged on the growth of contravention of a fundamental right.
III. As there is no fundamental right to enter into a business with the Government, or to obtain recognition from the Government, an application under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution would not lie for an alleged violation of such rights, under Article 19(1) (g) of the Indian Constitutional.
A. I, II and III
B. Only III
C. I and II
D. II and III
Ans: A
107. Which of the following clauses of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution (Right to Constitutional Remedies) guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for appropriate writs for the purpose of enforcing the fundamental rights included in Part III?
A. Clause I
B. Clause 2
C. Clause 32
D. Clause (1) A
Ans: A
108. Which of the following orders can be passed by the Supreme Court in Public Interest Litigation?
A. The Supreme Court directed security to be provided to the officer who complied with the directions of the Court
B. The Court may award costs to the petitioner even where the petition fails
C. The court may transfer the petition to a High Court within whose jurisdiction the matter lay
D. All of them
Ans: D
109. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Articles 34 of the Indian Constitution- Restriction on rights conferred by Part III while martial law is in force in any area.
II. Article 35 of the Indian Constitution – legislation to give effect to the provisions of this Article.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: A
110. The Directive Principles embodies the aims and objects of the State under the republican constitution i.e. a _____ state and the ideal of socio-economic justice.
A. Police
B. Welfare
C. Idealistic
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: B