General knowledge questions and answers on the constitution of India especially compiled for UPSC, Civil Services, IAS, Indian Judicial Services and other Competitive Exams!
1. The salary and allowance of Ministers are specified in which of the following schedules?
A. First
B. Second
C. Fifth
D. Seventh
Ans. B
2. Who among the following appoints the Attorney General for India?
A. Council of Ministers
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Chief Justice
Ans. C
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 77 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
II. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both are correct
D. None of them
Ans. C
4. The provision of the constitution of Parliament is given in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 77
B. Article 78
C. Article 79
D. Article 80
Ans. C
5. ‘Composition of the Council of States’ is mentioned in Article.
A. 80
B. 79
C. 81
D. 79(1)
Ans. A
6. Which of the following statements regarding the Council of States is/are correct?
I. The allocation of seats in the council of states to be filled by representatives of the states and of the Union Territories shall be in accordance with the provisions in that behalf contained in the Fourth Schedule.
II. The members to be nominated by the President under sub clause A. of clause (1) shall consist of persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters.
A. Both are correct
B. Both are incorrect
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. A
7. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the position of Rajya Sabha?
I. The Rajya Sabha, Upper Chamber of Parliament, is a forum to which experienced public figures get access without going through the din and bustle of a general election.
II. Rajya Sabha acts as a revising chamber over the Lok Sabha.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
8. The composition of the House of the people has been mentioned in Article.
A. 81
B. 80
C. 82
D. 83
Ans. A
9. Which of the following statements regarding the House of the People is/are found to be correct?
I. There shall be allotted to each State a number of seats in the House of the People in such manner that the ratio between that number and the population of the state is, so far as practicable, the same for all states.
II. Each State shall be divided into territorial constituencies in such manner that he ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is, so far as practicable, the same throughout the state.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
10. How many seats are allotted to the state of Jammu and Kashmir in the House of the People?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 4
Ans. C
11. “Upon the completion of each census, the allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the division of each state into territorial constituencies shall be readjusted by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.” This clause is associated with which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 81
B. Article 82
C. Article 83
D. Article 80
Ans. B
12. The tenure of the Council of States is:
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. Not subject to dissolution
D. 4 years
Ans. C
13. The general term of the House of People is:
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. Not dissolved
D. Permanent Chamber
Ans. A
14. The minimum age required to become the Prime Minister of India is:
A. 21 years
B. 35 years
C. 40 years
D. 25 years
Ans. D
15. Who among the following may prorogue the House or either House or dissolve the House of the People?
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Chairman of Council of states
Ans. B
16. In which of the following conditions can the President deliver the special address to the House of Parliament?
A. At the commencement of first session after each general election to the House of the people
B. At the commencement of the first session of each year
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
17. Which of the following statements regarding Officers of Parliament is/are found to be correct?
I. The Vice President of India shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
II. The Council of States shall, as soon as may be, choose a member of the council to be Deputy Chairman thereof and, so often as the office of Deputy Chairman becomes vacant, the council shall choose another member to be Deputy Chairman thereof.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both are correct
D. Both are incorrect
Ans. C
18. During the absence of the Chairman from any sitting of Council of States, the ______ shall act as Chairman.
A. Deputy Chairman
B. Speaker
C. Deputy Speaker
D. Leader of the House
Ans. A
19. The Election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker is mentioned in Article ______ of the Indian Constitution
A. 92
B. 94
C. 93
D. 95
Ans. C
20. ‘Power of the Deputy Speaker or other person to perform the duties of the office of, or to act as, speaker’ is mentioned in Article _______ of the Indian Constitution?
A. 94
B. 95
C. 96
D. 97
Ans. B
21. Article 97 of Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following?
A. Speaker and Deputy Speaker of House of the People
B. Secretariat of Parliament
C. Salaries and Allowance of Chairman and Deputy Chairman, the Speaker and Deputy Speaker
D. Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States
Ans. C
22. Salaries and allowances of the officers of Parliament are specified in the_______
A. First Schedule
B. Second Schedule
C. Third Schedule
D. Fifth Schedule
Ans. B
23. Oath or Affirmation by the members of Parliament is mentioned in the ________ Schedule of the Constitution?
A. First
B. Third
C. Fifth
D. Second
Ans. B
24. Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be ________of the total number of members of the House?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/6
D. 1/10
Ans. D
25. If for a period of _______ days a member of either House of Parliament is without permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant.
A. 60
B. 90
C. 45
D. 30
Ans. A
26. A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the ______________ schedule.
A. Sixth
B. Eight
C. Seventh
D. Tenth
Ans. D
27. Before giving any decision on any such question of disqualification, the President shall obtain the opinion of the __________ and shall act according to such opinion.
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Election Commission
D. Attorney General
Ans. C
28. Article 105 is associated with Parliament and its Members in which of the following way?
A. Powers
B. Privileges
C. Immunities
D. All of them
Ans. D
29. ‘Salaries and Allowances of members of Parliament’ are mentioned in Article_________ of the Indian Constitution?
A. 106
B. 105
C. 104
D. 107
Ans. A
30. An ordinary bill may originate in which of the following House of Parliament?
A. House of the People
B. Council of States
C. Either House
D. None of them
Ans. C
31. Article 108 of the Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following clauses?
A. Provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills
B. Joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases
C. Passing of Bills
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. B
32. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Money Bill’ is/are found to be correct?
I. A money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
II. The Council of States can retain a Money Bill for a period of Fourteen days from the date of its receipt from the House of the People.
III. The House of the People may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States made in a Money Bill.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. None of them
Ans. A
33. Who among the following takes the decision whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. President
D. Finance Minister
Ans. A
34. Which of the following expenditures shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
A. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office
B. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of People
C. The salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court
D. All of them
Ans. D
35. As soon as may be after the grants under Article 113 of the Indian Constitution have been made by the House of the People, there shall be introduced a Bill to provide for the appropriation out of the Consolidated Fund of India of all moneys required to meet:
I. The grants so made by the House of the People.
II. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India but not exceeding in any case the amount shown in the statements previously laid before Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
Ans. C
36. The salaries and allowances of speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council may be fixed by ________
A. President
B. State Legislative
C. Governor
D. Chief Minister
Ans. B
37. A Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation would involve expenditure from the________ of India shall not be passed by either House of Parliament unless the___________ has recommended to that House the consideration of the Bill.
A. Consolidated Fund; C.A.G
B. Consolidated Fund; President
C. Contingency Fund; President
D. Contingency Fund; C.A.G
Ans. B
38. Who among the following presides over the joint sittings of the two Houses?
A. Chairman of the Council of States
B. President
C. Speaker of the House of the People
D. Prime Ministers
Ans. C
39. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Chairman of the council of States or Speaker of the House of the people may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue.
II. No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judges as hereinafter provided.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
40. When both Houses of Parliament are not in session, the ________ may promulgate the laws according to the circumstances, known as Ordinances.
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Speaker
D. Vice President
Ans. B
41. Which of the following statements regarding on Ordinance is/are found to be correct?
I. An Ordinance made by the President (or Governor) is not an executive but a legislative act.
II. All the entries in the legislative list which are available to Parliament can be applied to uphold the validity of an Ordinance made by the President.
III. An Ordinance cannot do what Parliament could not do by enacting an Act.
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. A
42. The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the________
A. Prime Minister
B. Attorney General
C. President
D. Governor
Ans. C
43. A person shall not be qualified for appointment a Judge of the Supreme Court unless he is a citizen of India and:
I. has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession.
II. has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession.
III. is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Which of the above qualifications is/are found to be correct?
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
44. Certiorari:
A. Is a writ out of the Supreme Court “to the Government to call up the records of a cause therein depending that conscionable justice may be therein administered”
B. Is a writ out of the Supreme Court “to the High Court to call up the records of a cause therein depending that conscionable justice may be therein administered”
C. Is a writ out of the high Court “to an Inferior Court to call up the records of a cause therein depending that conscionable justice may be therein administered”
D. None of them
Ans. C
45. Which of the following statements regarding appointment of Judges is/are found to be correct?
I. No appointment of any Judge to the Supreme Court or any High Court can be made unless it is in conformity with the opinion of Chief Justice of India.
II. The senior most Judge of the Supreme Court should be appointed as Chief Justice of India, if considered fit to hold the office.
III. In matters of appointment only limited judicial review would be available.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. A
46. In the absence of Chief Justice of India, the duties of the office shall be performed by such one of the other Judges of the Court as the_______________ may appoint for the purpose.
A. Parliament
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Chief Justice
Ans. C
47. Who among the following may be requested by the Chief Justice of India with the previous consent of the President to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
A. The person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court
B. The person who has held the office of a Judge of a High Court and is duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
48. Pick the correct statements regarding the power to punish for contempt of Supreme Court?
I. The object of this power to punish is not the protection of the Judges personally from imputations to which they may be exposed as individuals, but the protection of the public themselves from the mischief they will incur if the authority of the tribunal is impaired.
II. Contempt proceedings cannot be initiated for a matter not included in the Original writ petition.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
49. The seat of Supreme Court is in:
A. Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Faridabad
D. Mumbai
Ans. A
50. Pick out the correct statement(s):
‘Subject to the provisions of Article 131of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other Court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute-
I. Between the Government of India and one or more States.
II. Between the Government of India and any state or states on one side and one a more other states on the other.
III. between two or more states.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
Ans. A
51. Article 14 lays down that “State shall not deny to any person equality before law and equal protection of laws.” The expression ‘any person’ means:
A. citizens and non-citizens living within the territory of India
B. citizen of India living anywhere
C. natural persons but not artificial persons
D. only natural persons.
Ans. A
52. ‘Any person’ under Article 14 denotes:
A. any company or association or body of individuals both citizens, non-citizens, natural persons and legal persons.
B. any person is preferred as individual only
C. any person includes only the foreign tourists
D. all of the above.
Ans. A
53. Give response to the statements Equality before law under Article 14 of the Constitution with reference to:
A. Laws enacted by Legislature
B. Orders passed by the Executive
C. Notifications issued by the Government
D. Laws enacted by Legislature, Executive order, etc.
Ans. D
54. In which recent judgment it was raised that whether section 14(l)(e) of Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 is ultra vires the doctrine of equality enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution of India:
A. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Rajni Devi
B. Satyawati Sharma (Dead) by LRS. v. Union of India
C. Kailash v. Nanhku
D. Sajjan Kumar v. Ram Kishan
Ans. B
55. In which of the following cases, it was observed as Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and they jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness:
A. Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration
B. Jagan Nath v. UOI
C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
D. Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
Ans. D
56. On which date the judgment passed which has changed the 50 years old law of Rent and challenged the doctrine of equality enshrined in Article 14:
A. 14th April, 2008
B. 16th April, 2008
C. 20th April, 2008
D. 2nd April, 2008.
Ans. B
57. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law, if any making special provision for a woman or children under Article 15(3):
A. it will be in contravention of Article 14
B. it does not contravene Article 14
C. it depends on the circumstances and gravity of the situation
D. both (b) & (c).
Ans. B
58. Article 15 does not permit the State to make any special provision for one of the following. Which one is that:
A. socially and educationally backward classes of citizens
B. economically backward classes
C. Scheduled Castes only
D. Scheduled Tribes only.
Ans. B
59. Article 15(1) prohibits the State to discriminate against citizens on the grounds only of:
A. religion
B. race
C. caste and place of birth
D. all of the above.
Ans. D.
60. The expression in Article 14 “equality before law and equal protection of law” means:
A. equality before law is a negative concept implying the absence of any special privilege in favour of individuals and equal subject of all classes to the ordinary law.
B. equality means, socio-economic balance
C. these two expressions are not applicable to our Democratic Republic
D. violation of these laws will lead to socioeconomic imbalance.
Ans. A
61. Article 15 forbids the classification on the basis of sex, caste, religion, race or place of birth. Which is the correct response:
A. classification in favour of women
B. classification in favour of socially and educationally backward classes
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of the above.
Ans. C
62. The group of people in the State to constitute backward class to satisfy Article 15(4) is left to:
A. the court to determine
B. the Parliament to decide
C. the President of India to decide
D. the State to decide.
Ans. C
63. A law making classification on the basis of the place of residence is:
A. violative of Article 15
B. not violative of Article 15
C. violative of Article 15, read with Article 14
D. violative of Article 15, read with Article 14 and Article 16(1).
Ans. A
64. Which of the following is correct:
A. Article 15(3) prevents the State from making provision for women and children
B. nothing in Article 15 shall prevent the State from making provision for women and children
C. prevents the State to make separate laws for disabled only under Article 15(3)
D. special provisions are made for foreign diplomats under Article 15.
Ans. B
65. Besides the right to equality of opportunity in general terms, Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination against a citizen on the following grounds except:
A. religion
B. caste
C. sex
D. education.
Ans. D
66. It has been said in many cases viz., Devdasan v. UOI, that Article 16 should be read with:
A. Articles 45 and 332
B. Articles 46 and 335
C. Articles 15 and 332
D. Articles 46 and 332.
Ans. B
67. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Tribes was added by:
A. 75th Amendment of the Constitution
B. 77th Amendment of the Constitution
C. 79th Amendment of the Constitution
D. 78th Amendment of the Constitution.
Ans. B
68. Under Article 16, the words ‘any employment or office’ applies:
A. only to public employments
B. private employments
C. both public and private employments
D. none of the above.
Ans. A
69. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to:
A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 17.
D. Article 15(4).
Ans. C
70. Article 19(1) includes:
A. freedom of speech and expression
B. liberty of press
C. freedom of propagation of ideas
D. none of the above.
Ans. A
71. Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression to:
A. all citizens of India
B. all Indians and foreigners
C. only persons above 21 years of age
D. only persons who have attained 60 years of age.
Ans. A
72. To practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business under Article 19(1)(g), dealing in intoxicants is:
A. a trade and legal
B. a trade but not legal
C. not a trade and illegal
D. a trade as status varies according to the state.
Ans. B
73. Freedom under Article 19 are:
A. sacrosanct and inalienable
B. absolute without any restriction
C. subject to reasonable restriction
D. both (a) & (c).
Ans. D
74. Article 19(1)(d) provides right to move freely throughout the territory of India. This right is:
A. subject to reasonable restrictions for certain and specific purpose
B. absolute and unchallengeable
C. not subjected to any restriction
D. guaranteed and any restriction is infringement.
Ans. A
75. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes introduced by an amendment to the Constitution:
A. Balaji v. State of Mysore
B. State of Madras v. Champakam Doirajan
C. Devdasan v. UOI
D. Periakarupan v. State of Tamil Nadu.
Ans. B
76. Union Government recently approved 33 per cent Reservation for Woman in:
A. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
B. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and other) in direct recruitment in all gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi
C. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi
D. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
Ans. A
77. Right to work in India is:
A. fundamental right
B. directive principle
C. is not a fundamental right but it can be claimed after employment
D. constitutional duty.
Ans. C
78. Assertion (A): In C.B. Muthamma v. UOI, the Supreme Court struck down the provision in service rules requiring a female employee to obtain the permission of the government in writing before her marriage is solemnised Reasoning (R): Such provision is discriminatory against women and violates Article 16 and hence unconstitutional:
Codes –
A. both A and R are true
B. both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Ans. A
79. Assertion (A): the principle of equality before law means that there should be ‘equality of treatment under equal circumstances. Reason (R): All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances:
Codes –
A. both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B. both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Ans. A
80. Right to life does not include right to die. It was held in the case:
A. R. Rathiram v. UOI
B. State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
C. Chenna Jagadeshwar v. State of A.P.
D. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab.
Ans. D
81. It has been held by Supreme Court that the appointment of the candidates in excess of the notified vacancies is a denial of fundamental right under Article 14 read with Article 16(1) of the Constitution:
A. Kerala Public Service Commission v. Dr. Kanjamma Alex
B. Ashok Kumar v. Chairman, Banking Service Recruitment Board
C. State of Karnataka v. A.B. Ongale
D. M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pandu Barde.
Ans. B
82. After the Mandal case, it has been observed that ‘The poisonous weed of Casteism has been replanted where it will trouble us a thousand years: each age will have to consider it”:
A. Prof. Upendra Baxi
B. N.A. Palkhiwala
C. Ram Jethmalani
D. P.N. Bhagwati.
Ans. B
83. The Supreme Court has ruled that a person belonging to the non-reserved class transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any other voluntary act to family belonging to the reserved class does not become eligible to benefit or reservation either under Article 15(4) or Article 16(4) of the Constitution in:
A. Indra Sawhney v. UOI
B. Km. Madhuri Patel v. Addl. Commissioner, Tribal Development
C. Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University
D. M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pander Barde.
Ans. C
84. As far as Armed Forces are concerned the fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:
A. not available at all
B. available to armed forces but not to other forces
C. available only at the discretion of the Chief of Army staff
D. available only according to law made by Parliament.
Ans. D
85. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of State power of reservation in admission to educational institutions:
A. caste can be sole criterion
B. poverty can be sole criterion
C. both caste and poverty are relevant criteria
D. residence in rural areas and lack of educational facilities can be exclusive criteria.
Ans. C
86. The Press has no fundamental right to publish the proceedings of the Legislature because:
A. the freedom of press is not fundamental right
B. the press publishes for project
C. each House of the Legislature is the exclusive master of its proceedings
D. a House of Legislature is a court and can regulate access to its proceedings.
Ans. C
87. The fundamental right to life emanates from:
A. Article 21 and includes right to die
B. Article 19 and does not include right to die
C. Articles 19 and 20 and does not include right to die
D. Article 21 and does not include right to die.
Ans. D
88. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to:
A. freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(l)(a)
B. culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
C. life and personal liberty under Article 21
D. equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14.
Ans. B
89. Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of:
A. public order
B. security of State
C. health
D. morality.
Ans. B
90. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Tribes are governed by:
A. Article 15(4) of the Constitution
B. Article 16(4) of the Constitution
C.only (a)
D. both (b) and (a).
Ans. D
91. Right to become or to continue being a member of a voluntary association or a cooperative society is a _____________right.
A. Statutory
B. Non-Statutory
C. Fundamental
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. A
92. Which of the following has been held to constitute restrictions upon the freedom of movement?
A. An order of externment
B. A surveillance by the Police upon the movements of a person
C. A restraint on the right to take out processions
D. All of them
Ans. D
93. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is available in which of the following clauses?
A. Clause (1) (e)
B. Clause (1) D
C. Clause (1) B
D. Clause (1) C
Ans. A
94. Clause (1) (g) of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following?
A. Freedom of profession, trade, business
B. Freedom of movement
C. Freedom of residence
D. None of them
Ans. A
95. ‘Protection in respect of conviction for offences’ is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 22
B. Article 21
C. Article 20
D. Article 19
Ans. C
96. Which of the following conditions is/are required for the application of Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitution i.e. immunity from double punishment?
I. The person must have been prosecuted in the previous proceeding.
II. The conviction or acquittal in the previous proceeding must be in force at the time of the second trial.
III. The offence which is the subject matter of the second proceeding must be the same as that of the first proceeding, for which he was prosecuted and punished.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. A
97. The protection is available to a person accused of an offence not merely with respect to the evidence to be given in the court room in the course of the trial but it is also available to him at the previous stages if an accusation has been made against him which might in the normal course result in his prosecution.
A. To a person against whom a formal accusation has been made, though the actual trial may not have commenced as yet
B. If such accusation relates to the commission of an offence which in the normal course may result in prosecution
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
98. “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law” is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 20
B. Article 21
C. Article 22
D. Article 23
Ans. B
99. Which of the following is the essence of the guaranteed right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution which is enjoyed by the people?
A. Movement
B. Residence
C. Quality life
D. None of them
Ans. C
100. Which of the following can be the exact meaning of Right to life, enshrined in Article 21 the Indian Constitution?
A. It means something more than survival or animal existence
B. It would include the right to live with human dignity
C. It means a right to minimum subsistence allowance during suspension
D. All of them
Ans. D
101. Which of the following rights are included in ‘Personal liberty’ in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
I. Right of a prisoner to a speedy trial.
II. Right to socialize with members of one’s family and friends.
III. Right to be admitted to a college.
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
Ans. C
102. Which of the following positive obligations has/have been imposed by activist judges upon the state to take steps for ensuring to the individual a better enjoyment of his life and dignity?
A. Elimination of water and air pollution
B. Maintenance and improvement of public health
C. Rehabilitation of bonded labourers
D. All of them
Ans. D
103. “The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six of fourteen years in such manner as the state may, by law, determine” is the essence of Right to Education which is mentioned in Article _____ of the Indian Constitution.
A. 21
B. 21A
C. 22
D. 21B
Ans. B
104. Which of the following clauses of Article 22 states of the Indian Constitution “No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.”?
A. Article 22 (1)
B. Article 22(2)
C. Article 22 (3)
D. Article 22(4)
Ans. A
105. Which of the following is/are considered the violations of the right to be defended by a legal practitioner?
I. Where the accused is denied the opportunity to engage a lawyer.
II. Where the trial is held without informing the accused of the date fixed for trial and without giving him an opportunity of getting into Communication with his lawyer.
A. I and II
B. Neither I nor II
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. A
106. Since clause (1) – (2) of Article 22 of the Indian Constitution are excluded from cases of preventive detention, a person detained under a law of preventive detention has no right-
I. To be produced before a Magistrate.
II. To consult or to be defended by a lawyer.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
107. ‘Right against Exploitation’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 23-24
B. Article 25-28
C. Article 29-30
D. Article 31-32
Ans. A
108. ‘Traffic in human beings’ is mentioned in which of the following clauses?
A. Article 23(1)
B. Article 23(2)
C. Article 23(3)
D. Article 23(4)
Ans. A
109. Which of the following can be the remedies if there is a violation of Article 23 of the Indian Constitution?
I. Article 23 is enforceable not only against the state but also against private persons indulging in such practice.
II. In an application under Article 23, the court may direct rehabilitation of the bonded labourers or payment to them of minimum wages.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
110. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct regarding enforceability of Article 24 of the Indian Constitution?
I. The right of a child is enforceable even in the absence of implanting legislation.
II. This right is enforceable in a public interest proceeding.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B