General knowledge questions and answers on Indian Evidence Act especially compiled for UPSC, civil services, IAS, Indian judicial services and other competitive exams!
1. What is parol contract?
A. a contract not entirely in writing
B. a contract in writing not under seal
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
2. What is parol evidence?
A. a term which, though sometimes applied to written matter as opposed to instruments under seal,
B. a term applied sometimes to oral testimony or statements as opposed to written, is in the present connection used to describe all evidence extraneous to the document itself
C. it means extrinsic evidence
D. all of them
Ans. D
3. When A stand while his right is being infringed by B, Applying Section 115, Indian Evidence Act, the rule of estoppels by the acquiescence applies under which of the following conditions:
A. B must be mistaken as to his legal rights
B. B must expend money or do some act on the faith of his mistaken belief
C. A must know his own rights and must know of B’s mistaken belief
D. all of them
Ans. D
4. Which kind of facts Section 6, Indian Evidence Act admits?
A. it admits only those facts the admissibility of which comes under the technical expression res gestate (i.e. the things done, including words spoken in the course of a transaction), but such facts must form part of the different transaction
B. it admits only those facts the admissibility of which comes under the technical expression res gestate (i.e. the things done, excluding words spoken in the course of a transaction), but such facts must form part of the benami transaction
C. it admits only those facts the admissibility of which comes under the technical expression res gestate (i.e. the things done, including words spoken in the course of a transaction), but such facts must form part of the same transaction
D. none of them
Ans. C
5. A sues B for inducing C to break a contract of service made by him with A. C, on leaving A’s service says to A – “I am leaving you because B has made me a better offer.” Applying Section 9, Indian Evidence Act:
A. this statement is a relevant fact as explanatory of C’s conduct, which is relevant as a fact in issue
B. this statement is an irrelevant fact concerning C’s conduct, which is irrelevant as a fact in issue
C. this statement does not produce corroborative evidence
D. none of them
Ans. A
6. Which of the following are outside the scope of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. contempt proceedings
B. affidavit
C. proceedings before arbitrator
D. all of them
Ans. D
7. Which of the following can be treated as confession for the purpose of Section 27, Indian Evidence Act?
A. confessions made under the provisions of Section 62, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1954
B. confessions made under the provisions of Section 65, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1960
C. confessions made under the provisions of Section 67, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1962
D. confessions made under the provisions of Section 68, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1965
Ans. C
8. Which of the following conditions must unite to render one an accessory after the fact?
A. the felony must be complete
B. the accessory must have knowledge that his principal committed the felony
C. his accessory must harbour or assist the principal felony
D. all of them
Ans. D
9. Which of the following has been adopted with verbal alterations from Section 149, Cr. PC, 1861?
A. Section 26, Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 27, Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 28, Indian Evidence Act
D. Section 29, Indian Evidence Act
Ans. A
10. Which of the following is a valid privity as per Section 18, Indian Evidence Act?
A. privies in blood, such as heir, an ancestor, and coparceners
B. privies in law, as executor and testator, administrator and a person dying intestate
C. privies in estate or interest, as vendor and purchaser, lessor and lessee, mortgagor and mortgagee, donor and donee
D. all of them
Ans. D
11. Which of the following is true for awarding the amount of damage by Court?
A. the amount of damages which the Court can award is, however, limited by its pecuniary jurisdiction
B. the Court can never grant a decree for a sum which exceeds the limits of its jurisdiction
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
12. Which of the following is true of an estoppel?
A. it is exhaustive
B. it is constructive
C. it cannot operate against a person who was not in existence at the date when the transaction took place
D. all of them
Ans. C
13. Which of the following regulates the production of documents in Court?
A. Civil Procedure Code
B. Indian Penal Code
C. Criminal Procedure Code
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
14. Which of the following Section 34, Indian Evidence Act provides for?
A. that entries in books of account regularly kept in the course of business are relevant and therefore admissible whenever they refer to a matter into which the Court has to enquire
B. that entries, though admissible, are not alone sufficient to charge a person with liability unless corroborated by other evidence
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
15. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with admission by persons whose position must be proved as against party to suit?
A. Section 19
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans. A
16. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with comparison of signature, writing or seal with others admitted or proved?
A. Section 80
B. Section 75
C. Section 73
D. Section 92
Ans. C
17. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with evidence as to application of language which can apply to one only of several persons?
A. Section 96
B. Section 80
C. Section 86
D. Section 82
Ans. A
18. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with former statements of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact?
A. Section 102
B. Section 171
C. Section 157
D. Section 169
Ans. C
19. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with official communications?
A. Section 163
B. Section 124
C. Section 187
D. Section 131
Ans. B
20. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with opinion as to digital signature when relevant?
A. Section 43-A
B. Section 44-D
C. Section 47-A
D. Section 51 -B
Ans. C
21. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to electronic agreements?
A. Section 12
B. Section 85-A
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans. B
22. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with primary evidence?
A. Section 48
B. Section 62
C. Section 58
D. Section 52
Ans. B
23. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of certain evidence for proving, in subsequent proceeding, the truth of facts therein stated?
A. Section 39
B. Section 36
C. Section 34
D. Section 33
Ans. D
24. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the presumption as to certain offences?
A. Section 111-A
B. Section 101-A
C. Section 102-B
D. Section 105-A
Ans. A
25. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with witnesses to character?
A. Section 139
B. Section 140
C. Section 145
D. Section 163
Ans. B
26. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act is an exception to the general rule contained Section 68, Indian Evidence Act which states that “if a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until one attesting witness at least has been called for the purpose of providing its execution”?
A. Section 50
B. Section 60
C. Section 70
D. Section 80
Ans. C
27. A desires a Court to give judgement that B shall be punished for a crime which A says B has committed. Applying Section 101, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A cannot prove that B has committed the crime
B. A need not prove that B has committed the crime
C. A must prove that B has committed the crime
D. none of them
Ans. C
28. A institutes a suit against B for the specific performance of a contract, and also prays that the contract may be reformed as to one of its provisions, as that provision was inserted in it by mistake. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A cannot prove that such a mistake was made as would by law entitle him to have the contract reformed
B. A cannot prove that such a mistake can have the contract reformed
C. A may prove that such a mistake was made as would by law entitle him to have the contract reformed
D. none of them
Ans. C
29. A sues B for Rs 1,000 and shows entries in his account books showing B to be indebted to him to his amount. Applying Section 34, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is possible?
A. the entries are relevant, sufficient, with other evidence, to prove the debt
B. the entries are relevant and are sufficient, without other evidence, to prove the debt
C. the entries are relevant, but are not sufficient, without other evidence, to prove the debt
D. none of them
Ans. C
30. A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money. B denies the making of the bond. Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. the fact that, at the time when the bond was alleged to be made, B required money for a particular purpose
B. the fact that, at the time when the bond was alleged to be made, A required money for a particular purpose
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
31. A, on his trial before the Court of Session, says that a deposition was improperly taken by B, the Magistrate. Applying Section 121, Indian Evidence Act:
A. B can be compelled to answer questions as to this
B. B cannot be compelled to answer questions as to this, except upon the special order of any Court
C. B cannot be compelled to answer questions as to this, except upon the special order of a superior Court
D. all of them
Ans. C
32. Admissions made before the customs authorities are not hit by which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 26
B. Section 32
C. Section 35
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. A
33. Admissions on a plaintiff in the previous suit:
A. is binding on him in a later proceeding
B. can be disqualified in a later proceeding
C. does not carry forward in a later proceeding
D. none of them
Ans. A
34. Admitted in evidence in Section 36, Indian Evidence Act means:
A. admitted after police consideration of the circumstances relating to its admissibility
B. admitted after judicial consideration of the circumstances relating to its admissibility
C. admitted after ministerial consideration of the circumstances relating to its admissibility
D. none of them
Ans. B
35. An accomplice evidence requires corroboration because:
A. he is a person of low character who has participated in the crime and is therefore likely to have no regard to the sanctity of his oath
B. he is interested in falsely destroying the facts in order to shift the guilt from himself
C. that he has the inducement of either a promised or implied pardon for his own part in the crime and is therefore likely to be biased in favour of the prosecution
D. all of them
Ans. D
36. Around which of the following the controversy in the interpretation of Section 27, Indian Evidence Act centres?
A. whether the discovery of fact referred to in Section 27, Indian Evidence Act should be confined only to the discovery of a material object and the knowledge of the accused in relation there to or the discovery could be in respect of his mental state or knowledge in relation to certain things-concrete or non-concrete
B. whether it is necessary that the discovery of fact should be by the person making the disclosure or directly at his instance? The subsequent event of discovery by the police with the aid of information furnished by the accused – whether can be put against him under Section 27, Indian Evidence Act
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
37. As per Section 21, Indian Evidence Act, admissions cannot be proved by or on behalf of the person who makes them, or by representative in interest, except when:
A. it is of such a nature that, if the person making it were dead, it would be relevant as between third persons under Section 32, Indian Evidence Act
B. it consists of a statement of the existence of any state of mind or body made at or about the time when such a state of mind or body existed, and is accompanied by conduct rendering its falsehood improbable
C. it is relevant otherwise than as an admission
D. all of them
Ans. D
38. Different persons are differently constituted and some persons when wanted in a criminal case deliberately abscond simply to avoid a criminal trial. Still, the flight of the accused from justice after the occurrence is a relevant circumstance indicative of the conduct of the accused. At the same time, it must be borne in the mind that conclusion of guilty mind cannot be drawn from such circumstances alone because even an innocent person may be tempted to such a conduct, to avoid arrest. This was observed by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?
A. Maha Singh v. State (Delhi Admn.), AIR 1976 SC 449.
B. Kartarey v. State of U.P., AIR 1976 SC 76.
C. Rahman v. State, AIR 1972 SC 110.
D. Bhagwan das v. State, AIR 1974 SC 898.
Ans. C
39. From which section of the Cr. PC under the Amended Act, 8 of 1869 is Section 27, Indian Evidence Act taken?
A. Section 150
B. Section 160
C. Section 170
D. Section 180
Ans. A
40. In which of the following case the prosecutrix does not require corroboration to be acted on?
A. homicide
B. robbery
C. culpable homicide
D. rape
Ans. D
41. Opinion as to relationship under the main part of Section 50, Indian Evidence Act apply in considering the question of proceedings of which under of the following section of Cr.P.C as to the existence of the relationship of marriage between the parties?
A. Section 125
B. Section 177
C. Section 180
D. Section 182
Ans. A
42. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act prescribes the mode of using the former statements of a witness for the purpose of contradicting him?
A. Section 9
B. Section 12
C. Section 4
D. all of them
Ans. D
43. Section 7, Indian Evidence Act provides for the admission of several classes of facts which are connected with the transaction under inquiry in particular modes which are:
I. as being the occasion or cause of a fact
II. as being its effect
III. as giving opportunity for its occurrence
IV. as constituting the state of things under which it happened
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
44. Under which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act it is not necessary that the attesting witnesses should identify each other?
A. Section 61
B. Section 71
C. Section 81
D. Section 91
Ans. A
45. The question is, whether A committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. Applying Section 11, Indian Evidence Act which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. the fact that, on that day A was at Lahore
B. the fact that, near the time when the crime was committed, A was at a distance from the place where it was committed
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
46. If a case is not hit by which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act and Section 164 Cr. PC, it would not only be admissible in evidence but it would be good to sustain a conviction on any charge?
I. Section 24
II. Section 25
III. Section 26
IV. Section 27
A. I, II and III
B. III and IV
C. II and IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
47. To render a document admissible which of the following conditions must be fulfilled under Section 35, Indian Evidence Act?
A. the entry that is relied on must be one in any public or other official book, register, or record
B. it must be an entry relating to a fact in issue or relevant fact
C. it must be made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duty, or any other per son in performance of a duty specially enjoined by law
D. all of them
Ans. D
48. What is disgraceful conduct?
A. shameful behaviour
B. reputable behaviour
C. unauthenticated behaviour
D. none of them
Ans. A
49. What is partial evidence?
A. it is that which goes to establish a detached fact in a series tending to the fact in dispute
B. it may be received, subject to be rejected, as incompetent, unless connected with the fact in dispute by proof of other facts
C. both (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
50. Under Section 57, Indian Evidence Act, judicial notice cannot be taken of:
I. the fact whether a particular railway track which was laid on the land belongs to the Central Government
II. of a notification issued by the Textile Commissioner
III. of a notification under the Forest Act
IV. it is not open to the Court to take judicial notice of the Clearing House Rules
A. I, III and IV
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
51. Which of the following is an exception to Section 132, Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 94 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
B. Section 95 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
C. Section 96 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
D. Section 97 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
Ans. A
52. Which of the following condition must be satisfied to apply the presumption under Section 85, Indian Evidence Act in respect of the execution of a power of attorney?
A. it must be executed before a notary public or any other person referred to in Section 85
B. it must be authenticated by the notary public or any person mentioned in Section 85
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
53. Whenever a document is produced as primary or secondary evidence, it will be proved in the manner laid down in which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?
I. Section 67
II. Section 68
III. Section 69
IV. Section 70
V. Section 71
VI. Section 72
VII. Section 73
A. I, III, V and VII
B. II, III and VI
C. V, VI and VII
D. all of them
Ans. D
54. Which of the following is a rule regarding a confession, which is subsequently retracted:
A. that a confession is not to be regarded as involuntary merely because it is retracted
B. as against the maker of the confession the retracted confession may form the basis of a conviction if it is believed to true and voluntarily made
C. as against the co-accused, both prudence and caution require the Court not to rely on a retracted confession without independent corroborative evidence
D. all of them
Ans. D
55. Which of the following is false?
A. a person who specifically avers that a document is a will cannot be allowed to say that it is not a will but a family arrangement
B. if a person chooses to accept a legacy under a will, he will be estopped from setting up a title contrary to its provision
C. a Hindu coparcener who took the property under a will of another coparcener and acted on the terms of the reference of the will and his transferees who bought the property with notice of his title, are estopped from questioning the will
D. none of them
Ans. D
56. A policy of insurance is affected on goods “in ships from Calcutta to London”. The goods are shipped in a particular ship which is lost. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:
A. the fact that that particular ship was orally accepted from the policy can be proved
B. the fact that that particular ship was orally accepted from the policy must be proved
C. the fact that that particular ship was orally accepted from the policy cannot be proved
D. none of them
Ans. C
57. Bond is:
A. an oral agreements between an issuer and investor
B. a paper evidence of a legal promise by the issuer to charge the investor on declared terms
C. it is a general relationship between any two beings
D. both (A) and (B)
E. the paper evidence of a legal promise by the issuer to pay the investor on the declared terms
Ans. D
58. Which of the following is true of Section 57, Indian Evidence Act?
A. Part I of the Act deals with what facts may, and what facts may not, be proved in a civil and criminal case
B. Part II deals with the question of what sort of evidence must be given of a fact which has to be proved
C. Part III shows the manner in which a fact in issue or relevant fact must be proved
D. all of them
Ans. D
59. Which of the following is true of Section 71, Indian Evidence Act?
A. it enables the party to prove the document by other evidence when the attesting witness denies the execution of the document or does not recollect its execution
B. it a sort of safeguard introduced by the Legislature to the mandatory provisions of Section 68, where it is not possible to prove the execution of the will by calling attesting witnesses though alive
C. for the applicability of this section it would be incumbent on the party to call the attesting witness in compliance with Section 68
D. all of them
Ans. D
60. Which of the following is true of the Law of Evidence?
A. it is a system of rules and standards by which the admission of proof at the trial of a lawsuit is regulated
B. it is not about determining the consequence of facts but about establishing those facts
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
(a) upon litigating parties
(b) upon privies of the litigating parties
(c) upon strangers to the lis
(d) both (a) & (b) only.
Ans. (d)
(a) civil action
(b) criminal action
(c) both civil and criminal action
(d) only (b) and not (a).
Ans. (a)
(a) by matter of record resulting from the judgment of a competent court
(b) by deed resulting from entering into a solemn engagement as to certain facts
(c) by pais arising from agreement or contract and from act or conduct of misrepresentation resulting in a change of position
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
64. The estoppel in section 115 of Evidence Act:
(a) is an estoppel by record
(b) is an estoppel by deed
(c) is an estoppel by pais
(d) all the above.
Ans. (c)
65. In which of the following there is no estoppel:
(a) on a point of law
(b) against a statute
(c) attestation of a deed
(d) all the above.
Ans. (c)
(a) by silence
(b) by negligence
(c) by election
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
(a) question of facts
(b) question of right
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (a)
(a) is a cause of action in itself
(b) creates a cause of action
(c) both (a) & (b) are correct
(d) neither (a) nor (b) is correct.
Ans. (d)
(a) should be specifically pleaded
(b) need not be specifically pleaded
(c) may be specifically pleaded or may not be specifically pleaded
(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.
Ans. (a)
70. Rule of estoppel of tenants and of licence of person in possession is contained in:
(a) section 116 of Evidence Act
(b) section 117 of Evidence Act
(c) section 118 of Evidence Act
(d) section 119 of Evidence Act.
Ans. (a)
71. Estoppel operates in case of a tenant:
(a) during the continuance of tenancy
(b) who remain in possession after the termination of tenancy by notice to quit
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (a) and not (b).
Ans. (c)
72. Under section 116 of Evidence Act, the tenant is estopped:
(a) from denying the title to the property, of the landlord
(b) from denying the title to the property, of the actual owner
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only & not (a).
Ans. (a)
(a) during the continuance of tenancy
(b) after the creation of tenancy or licence
(c) after the surrender of possession under tenancy or licence
(d) all the above.
Ans. (a)
74. Under section 118 who amongst the following are competent witnesses:
(a) child
(b) accused
(c) lunatic
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
75. A person is competent to testify:
(a) if he understands the question put to him
(b) if he is able to give rational awareness to those questions
(c) if has both (a) & (b)
(d) if has (a) only and not (b).
Ans. (c)
76. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under:
(a) section 118 of Evidence Act
(b) section 119 of Evidence Act
(c) section 120 of Evidence Act
(d) section 121 of Evidence Act.
Ans. (b)
77. Husband & wife both are competent witness for & against each other:
(a) in civil proceedings
(b) in criminal proceedings
(c) in both civil & criminal proceedings
(d) neither in civil nor in criminal proceedings.
Ans. (c)
78. Section 121 of Evidence Act provides for privilege in respect of:
(a) husband & wife
(b) judges & magistrates
(c) affairs of the state
(d) official communication.
Ans. (b)
79. Privilege in respect of judges & magistrates under section 121 of Evidence Act relates to:
(a) questions which a witness cannot be compelled to answer
(b) question which a witness cannot be permitted to answer
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (d)
80. Privilege under section 121 of Evidence Act is:
(a) available to an arbitrator
(b) not available to an arbitrator
(c) may or may not be available to an arbitrator
(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.
Ans. (a)
81. Privilege in respect of husband & wife under section 122 of Evidence Act relates to:
(a) question which a witness cannot be compelled to answer
(b) question which a witness cannot be permitted to answer
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (b) & not (a).
Ans. (c)
82. Admissibility of the evidence under section 122 of Evidence Act has to be adjudged:
(a) in the light of the status on the date when the communication was made
(b) in the light of the status, on the date when the communication is sought to be tendered in court
(c) in the light of the status, on the date when the evidence is to be given in the court
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (a)
83. A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under section 122 of Evidence Act:
(a) remains privileged communication after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
(b) does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
(c) does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce, but remains privileged even after death
(d) remains privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but not so on after death.
Ans. (a)
(a) is not admissible in evidence until consented to by the writer of the communication
(b) is not admissible in evidence at all
(c) is admissible in evidence
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (c)
85. A husband or wife are permitted to disclose any communication between them during marriage:
(a) in civil proceedings between the parties
(b) in criminal proceedings between the parties
(c) in matrimonial proceedings between the parties
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
86. Protection under section 122 of Evidence Act is available to:
(a) a witness
(b) husband & wife as a witness
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (b)
87. Protection under section 122 of Evidence Act is:
(a) confined to confidential communication and not applicable to general communication between the husband & wife
(b) not confined to confidential communications only but extends to communication of whatever nature
(c) confined to confidential communication and may be extended to communications of general nature
(d) only (c) and not (a) or (b).
Ans. (b)
88. Protection under section 122 of Evidence Act:
(a) can be waived by the witness without the consent of the husband or wife
(b) can be waived by the witness with the consent of husband or wife, only
(c) cannot be waived by the witness under any circumstances
(d) either (a) or (c).
Ans. (a)
89. Communication in respect of the affairs of the state are privileged communication on the grounds of public policy:
(a) under section 123 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 124 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 125 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 126 of Evidence Act.
Ans. (a)
90. Documents in respect of which privilege has been provided under section 123 of Evidence Act:
(a) is a published official record
(b) is an unpublished official record
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (b)
(a) has the jurisdiction to inspect the documents itself
(b) the court is banned from inspecting the document
(c) the court can compel the production of the document for inspection
(d) both (a) & (c) are correct.
Ans. (b)
92. Section 124 of Evidence Act provides for privileged in respect of:
(a) professional communications
(b) official communications
(c) communications as to information of commission of offence
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
93. For protection under section 124 of Evidence Act, the communication is to be made:
(a) to a public officer in official confidence
(b) to a public officer as a routine matter
(c) to a public officer as an ordinary cause of his duties
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (a)
(a) for the purposes of professional employment
(b) in the cause of employment
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)
(a) can disclose the communication after his clients death
(b) can disclose the communication after the relation with his client has ended
(c) cannot disclose the communication even when the relation is ended or the client has died
(d) both (a) & (b) are correct.
Ans. (c)
96. Section 8, Indian Evidence Act embodies which of the following rule?
A. That the testimony of alibi is allowable when it goes to the root of the matter concerning the commission of a crime
B. That the testimony of codicil is allowable when it goes to the root of the matter concerning the commission of a crime
C. That the testimony of res gestae is allowable when it goes to the root of the matter concerning the commission of a crime
D. None of them
Ans: C
97. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with a fact which constitutes motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct?
A. Section 23
B. Section 16
C. Section 1
D. Section 8
Ans: D
98. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with birth during marriage, conclusive proof of legitimacy?
A. Section 111
B. Section 112
C. Section 113
D. Section 116
Ans: B
99. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with evidence as to application language to one of two set of facts, to neither of which the whole correctly applies?
A. Section 94
B. Section 97
C. Section 86
D. Section 82
Ans: B
100. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with leading questions?
A. Section 139
B. Section 144
C. Section 141
D. Section 163
Ans: C
101. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to electronic records and digital signatures?
A. Section 12
B. Section 16
C. Section 85-B
D. Section 18
Ans: C
102. A desires a Court to give judgment that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of B, by reason of facts which he asserts, and which B denies, to be true. Applying Section 101, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A cannot prove the existence of those facts
B. A need not prove the existence of those facts
C. A must prove the existence of those facts
D. None of them
Ans: C
103. A is tried for the murder of B by poison. Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. The fact that, before the death of B, B already had poison in his possession
B. The fact that, before the death of B, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: B
104. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the exclusiveness and conclusiveness of documentary evidence?
A. Section 89 and 91
B. Section 90 and 93
C. Section 91 and 92
D. Section 92 and 94
Ans: C
105. Who prepared the Draft Bill of the Indian Evidence Act and introduced in the legislative Council?
A. Sir Henry Sumner Maine
B. Dr. C. Rajagopalachari
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: A
106. A statement of a witness on the question of relationship may be admissible under Section 50, Indian Evidence Act or:
A. Section 32 (3), Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 32 (4), Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 32 (5), Indian Evidence Act
D. Section 32 (6), Indian Evidence Act
Ans: C
107. Estoppels can be:
A. by record
B. by deed
C. in pays
D. All of them
Ans: D
108. Any statement of the accused to a police officer, leading to the discovery of the fact, must be recorded by the police officer as proof of such statement and for its admissibility under:
A. Section 27, Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 29, Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 30, Indian Evidence Act
D. None of them
Ans: A
109. The general ground of reception under Section 35, Indian Evidence Act is:
A. That the statements and entries have been made by authorised agents of the public in the course of official duty
B. That facts recorded are of public interest or notoriety
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
110. The meaning of the maxim “Affirmanti non neganti incumbit probatio” is:
A. The burden of proof does rests upon him who affirms, but upon him who denies
B. The burden of proof rests upon him who affirms, not upon him who denies
C. The burden of proof rests upon the judiciary
D. None of them
Ans: B
111. The question is, whether A committed a crime. Applying Section 11, Indian Evidence Act which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. The circumstances are such that the crime must have been committed either by A, B, C or D
B. Fact which shows that the crime could have been committed by no one else and that it was not committed by either B, C or D
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
112. To which of the following clause of Section 63, Indian Evidence Act, copies by photography, lithography, cyclostyle and carbon copies belong?
A. Clause 2
B. Clause 3
C. Clause 4
D. Clause 5
Ans: A
113. To which of the following type of case Section 14 does not apply?
A. Where a particular act is more or less criminal or culpable according to the state of mind or feeling of the person who does it
B. Where the question is of the guilt or innocence of the accused, which depends on actual facts and not upon the state of mind or feeling
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: A
114. What does the term book in Section 34 of the Indian Evidence Act means?
A. Means a collection of sheets of paper bound together with the intention that such binding shall be permanent,
B. Means papers used collectively in one volume,
C. Means unbound paper, in whatever quantity, though filled up with one continuous account
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
115. Which is the most important branch adjectival law?
A. The Law of Evidence
B. Code of Criminal Procedure
C. The Indian Penal Code
D. All of them
Ans: A