Mock test questions on Constitutional Law of India, Indian Penal Code, Law of Contract and Law of Torts for Indian Judicial Service preliminary exam!
1. Which one of the following statements is correct:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares the resolve of the People of India to secure to all its citizens:
(a) Freedom of residence anywhere in the country
(b) Right to establish and administer educational institutions of choice
(c) Liberty of belief, faith and worship
(d) Right to education at primary level.
Ans. (c)
2. Under section 115 of CPC, the revisional jurisdiction is with:
(a) the High Court
(b) the court of the District Judge
(c) the court of small causes
(d) all the above.
3. Section 115 applies to:
(a) exercise of jurisdiction not vested in a court
(b) non-exercise of jurisdiction vested in a court
(c) irregular exercise of jurisdiction vested in the court
(d) all the above.
4. The Constitution describes India as a:
(a) Quasi-federal Country
(b) Federation of States and Union Territories
(c) Union of States
(d) Union of Provinces.
Ans. (c)
5. The Governor may appoint a person as a Chief Minister who is not member of the Legislature of the State:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes but for the period of three months
(d) Yes but for the period of six months.
Ans. (d)
6. The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List:
(a) For the implementation of international treaties or agreements
(b) If the Rajya Sabha declares by two-third majority resolution that it is expedient to do so in national interest
(c) If the legislatures of two or more States request it to do so
(d) In all the above cases.
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following determines that the Constitution of India is federal:
(a) A written and rigid constitution
(b) An independent judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the centre
(d) Distribution of power between the centre and the states.
Ans. (d)
8. The control of expenditure of the Government of India vests in:
(a) The Finance Minister
(b) The Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament.
Ans. (d)
9. “Closure” the word used in Parliament Procedure means:
(a) End of further debate on a motion under consideration
(b) Closure of adjournment motion
(c) End of zero hour
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
10. Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh was a national of:
(a) Britain
(b) Portugal
(c) France
(d) Netherlands.
Ans. (c)
11. Which Indian Scientist has had the distinction of receiving not only the Nobel Prize, but also Bharat Ratna:
(a) Dr. Hargovind Khurana
(b) Dr. J.C. Bose
(c) Dr. C.V. Raman
(d) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai.
Ans. (c)
12. If a father has made a______ to the daughter at time of her marriage, it_______ disentitle her claiming a share as her father’s heir.
A. A gift, would
B. A gift, would not
C. Substantial gift, would
D. Substantial gift, it might depending of case
Ans. B
13. Name the Scientist who is the only one to have been awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics twice:
(a) John Bardeen
(b) John Mayer
(c) Thomas A. Steitz
(d) Marie Curie.
Ans. (a)
14. Money Bill can be introduced in:
(a) The House of the People
(b) The Council of States
(c) Either of the two Houses
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
15. ‘Budget’ is known as:
(a) Annual financial statement
(b) Annual Budget
(c) Financial statement of the year
(d) It has no other name.
Ans. (a)
16. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the following recommendations was/ were made by the Committee:
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas
2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous districts of Assam
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 4.
Ans. (c)
17. Amrtya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to:
(a) Econometric
(b) Welfare Economics
(c) Development Economics
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of following is the highest peacetime gallantry award of India:
(a) Param Vir Chakra
(b) Ashok Chakra
(c) Maha Vir Chakra
(d) Kirti Chakra.
Ans. (b)
19. Which one among the following Committees of the Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha:
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Public undertakings Committee
(d) Departmentally related Standing Committee on Finance
Ans. (b)
20. Any sum required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal shall be charged on:
(a) Prime Minister’s relief fund
(b) Consolidated Fund of India
(c) Fund of Ministry of Law & Justice
(d) Fund of Ministry of Home Affairs.
Ans. (b)
21. Whose decision is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament:
(a) The Election Commission
(b) The President
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Prime Minister.
Ans. (b)
22. Assertion (A): In federal set up sovereignty is divided between the Central and Provincial government.
Reason (R): The powers of the government are divided in a federal set up:
(a) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
23. Review is maintainable:
(a) when an appeal is provided, but no appeal preferred
(b) when no appeal is provided
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b)
24. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, it is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations within how many days:
(a) 12 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 30 days.
Ans. (b)
25. Section 115 of CPC provides for:
(a) reference
(b) review
(c) revision
(d) appeal to the Supreme Court.
26. Remedy of revision is not available:
(a) in order from which an appeal lies
(b) in interlocutory order
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)
27. The provisions of Section 137 and 138 of the Indian Evidence Act are applicable to proceedings under which of the following in the absence of any provision to the contrary?
A. Section 139 Cr. P.C
B. Section 142 Cr. P.C
C. Section 145 Cr. P.C
D. Section 147 Cr. P.C
Ans. C
28. After what time period, the House may declare the seat vacant of any member, when he absents from all meetings without permission of the House:
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) There is no time period
Ans. (c)
29. Grounds for review have been provided under:
(a) Order XLVII, Rule 1 of CPC
(b) Order XLII, Rule 1 of CPC
(c) Order XLIII, Rule 1 of CPC
(d) Order XLIV, Rule 1 of CPC.
30. A judgment can be reviewed on the ground of:
(a) discovery of new & important evidence, not within the knowledge of the party concerned
(b) mistake of error of fact or law on the face of the record
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)
31. A person shall not be disqualified for being chosen as a member of either House of the Parliament, on which one of the following grounds:
(a) He holds office of profit under the Government
(b) He is of unsound mind
(c) He is not a citizen of India
(d) He is a law breaker.
Ans. (d)
32. Under Section 65, Clause (C), Indian Evidence Act, in which of the following way a secondary evidence of a document which is lost or difficult to trace can be adduced?
A. by oral evidence of a persons who were present when the document was executed
B. by a certified copy of the original documents
C. by considering the documents as immaterial
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
33. Under which of the following condition statements are admissible:
I. if they form part of the same transaction u/s. 6, Indian Evidence Act
II. showing conduct influenced by a fact in issue u/s. 8, Indian Evidence Act
III. negativing the consent when consent is material under u/s. 9, Indian Evidence Act
IV. other statements can be used under Section 32, 145 and 157, Indian Evidence Act
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
34. Periods of limitation by any Act of the Government of India since 1868 are computed according to which of the following calendars?
A. Hindu calendar
B. Gregorian calendar
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
35. The period of limitation of 60 years for acquiring a prescriptive right in respect of Government property is now reduced to _________.
A. 50 years
B. 40 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
Ans. (D)
36. Which of the following is true of prescriptive right?
A. It is based on immemorial user justifying a presumption of lost grant may be claimed
B. To establish a presumption of lost grant no particular period of enjoyment is necessary
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
37. In which of the following cases proof of enjoyment for a period of not less than 20 years is needed?
A. It is only where a right of easement is based on a claim uninterrupted
B. It is only where a right of easement is based on continuous user alone
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
38. Which of the deals with the effect of novation, rescission and alteration of contract in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 68
B. Section 50
C. Section 61
D. Section 62
Ans. (D)
39. Which of the deals with what agreements are contracts in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 1
B. Section 10
C. Section 17
D. Section 14
Ans. (B)
40. Which of the following Amendment Acts inserted Section 19A into the Indian Contract Act?
A. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (6 of 1899)
B. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (7 of 1899)
C. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (8 of 1899)
D. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (9 of 1899)
Ans. (A)
41. Which of the following is the normal remedy where an employee is dismissed in breach of contract?
I. Claim for damages
II. Declaration that the dismissal was wrongful
III. Specific enforcement
IV. Declaration that the dismissal was invalid
A. I, II
B. II, III, IV
C. I, III
D. I, II, IV
Ans. D
42. Which of the following Section 24, Limitation Act, 1963 does not rise?
A. Presumption as to month
B. Presumption as to date
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
43. The definition of ‘month’ as per the Vikram calendar directed to be followed in the Marwar Limitation Act cannot be applied to which of the following under Order 20, Rule 14, C.P.C?
A. An order of the Court directing payment of pre-emption price within a period of two months after the date of a pre-emption decree
B. An order of the Court directing payment of pre-emption price within a period of two months from the date of a pre-emption decree
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
44. Even for the purpose other than the purposes of this Act, the parties to a deed bearing a native date must, in the absence of evidence of mutual mistakes, be taken to refer to which of the following?
A. Agricultural year
B. Financial year
C. Calendar native years
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
45. Which of the following is the most important part of the decree?
A. The portion where the Court approves the decree
B. The portion where the Court orders the parties to submit specific documents
C. The portion where the Court directs the contract to be specifically performed
D. None of these
Ans. C
46. Which of the following is substitutional remedy?
A. Specific performance
B. Damages
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
47. Which of the following is not a ‘contract for the purpose of the company’ within the meaning of clause (g) of s. 15, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. A contract of sale between a vendor and someone on behalf of a non-existing cooperative society
B. A contract by a person with the promoters of a company to take certain number of shares of the company
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
48. Which of the following is no ground to refuse specific performance?
A. The failure of the purpose of the defendant while entering into the contract
B. The defendant’s speculation had proved unfortunate to him
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
49. Which of the following is false about the suit for recovery of possession?
A. It can filed by the person dispossessed or any of the persons dispossessed
B. it can be filed by two persons who is in exclusive possession of immovable property, whether as agent of that or principal or both
C. A person cannot sue partial possession where the dispossession is partial
D. None of them
Ans. C
50. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the words ‘dying interstate’ would apply
A. A Hindu dies having made a will for self-acquired property
B. A Hindu dies having made an invalid will
C. A Hindu dies without making a valid will or having made an invalid will
D. A Hindu dies without leaving any children
Ans. C
51. When the status of a coparcenary is abolished under the Kerala Joint Hindu Family System Abolition Act, the property of a male Hindu dying interstate would devolve ______________
A. On class I heirs in accordance with the provisions of First Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
B. According to provisions of the Kerala Joint Hindu Family System Abolition Act
C. First on class I heirs, then on class II heirs and then according to provisions of the Kerala Joint Hindu Family System
D. None of the above
Ans. A
52. Which of the following is the correct distinction between inadequacy of consideration and gross inadequacy in s. 20, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. The former according to the Explanation is an extra dose or additional dose of proof of a design by avaricious purchase by which the vendor was victimised. In the latter case, it is not a ground for refusing specific performance
B. The former according to the Explanation is not a ground for refusing specific performance. In the latter case it is an extra dose or additional dose of proof of a design by avaricious purchase by which the vendor was victimised
C. The former and the latter according to the Explanation is not a ground for refusing specific performance
D. None of these
Ans. B
53. Which of the following is the appropriate method of compelling a defendant to perform a positive obligation of his own under the contract?
A. Specific Relief
B. Specific Performance
C. Specific Act
D. None of these
Ans. B
54. The father F, was taken into adoption subsequent to a daughter D begotten from a subsisting marriage with W1. W1 died and F married W2. On the death of F. which of the following statements will be true for the property vested with F due to his adoption?
A. D is not entitled to any share as all blood ties severe on adoption, W2 will get share as she married F after his adoption
B. D is entitled but W2 is not entitled to any share because only blood ties survive adoption
C. D and W2 are entitled to succeed equally to the estate of F
D. Both D and W2 are not entitled to any share
Ans. C
55. Illegitimate daughter of a male Hindu dying interstate is ____________________ share of the inheritance, ____________________ to maintenance from father.
A. Entitled to, but she is not entitled
B. Entitled to, and she is also entitled
C. Not entitled to any, but she is entitled
D. Not entitled to any, and she is also not entitled
Ans. C
56. Which of the following Amendment Acts inserted Section 19B and 19C into the Indian Contract Act?
A. Central Province Act, 1 of 1912 and the CP and Berar Indian Contract (Amendment) Act 12 of 1938
B. Central Province Act, 1 of 1913 and the CP and Berar Indian Contract (Amendment) Act 13 of 1938
C. Central Province Act, 1 of 1914 and the CP and Berar Indian Contract (Amendment) Act 14 of 1938
D. Central Province Act, 1 of 1915 and the CP and Berar Indian Contract (Amendment) Act 15 of 1938
Ans. (D)
57. Which of the following are the conditions for the application of Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. The goods are to be delivered lawfully or something has to be done for another person lawfully
B. The thing done or the goods delivered must be done or delivered without intention to do so gratuitously
C. The person to whom goods are to delivered enjoys the benefit thereof
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
58. Which of the following are the main theoretical bases of quasi-contractual liability?
A. Implied contract
B. Unjust enrichment
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
59. Which of the following deals with the application for restitution in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 150
B. Section 146
C. Section 108
D. Section 144
Ans. D
60. Which of the following deals with the frame of suit in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 8, Rule 1
B. Order 6, Rule 2
C. Order 3, Rule 3
D. Order 2, Rule 1
Ans. D
61. Which of the following are essential conditions of pledge?
A. Bailment of goods
B. Bailment by way of security
C. Security of payment of debt
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
62. Which of the following are not variations that do not discharge a surety?
I. Reduction in the amount of arrears mentioned in a surety bond
II. An acknowledgment of debt by the principal-debtor
III. Breach of contract amount
IV. A creditor’s acceptance of a debtor’s wrongful repudiation
V. After a decree is passed against the principal-debtor and the surety their liability becomes one under the decree and not under the original contract
VI. A change in the management of a principal-debtor company
VII. Any change in the members of the board of directors or appointment of another managing director
A. II, III, IV
B. IV, VI
C. I, VII
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
63. Which of the following deals with service on defendant in prison in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 7, Rule 14
B. Order 5, Rule 24
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 10, Rule 8
Ans. B
64. Which of the following deals with specific denial in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 8, Rule 5
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 10, Rule 22
Ans. A
65. Parliament consists of:
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
(c) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President and Vice-President
(d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President, Vice- President and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Ans. (b)
66. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the State Government:
(a) cannot legislate
(b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List
(c) can legislate on the subject in the State List
(d) is suspended.
Ans. (c)
67. When can a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List get precedence over a central law on the same subject:
(a) in no circumstance
(b) if it was made before the Central law
(c) if it had got the President’s assent before the enactment of the Central law
(d) if it had got the President’s consent before being introduced as a bill in the State Legislature.
Ans. (c)
68. Under which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act the Court may presume existence of certain facts?
A. Section 140
B. Section 114
C. Section 156
D. Section 116
Ans. B
69. What do you mean by burden of evidence?
A. means the burden of “getting by” the judge to the jury, by making a prima facie showing as to each factual ingredient necessary to establish a prima facie case
B. means the failure of getting by the judge to the jury, by making a prima facie showing as to each factual ingredient necessary to establish a prima facie case
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. A
70. Which of the following deals with the appearance before the conciliatory forum or authority in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 5, Rule 30
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 10, Rule 1B
Ans. C
71. Which of the following deals with recording of admitted and return of rejected documents in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 19, Rule 5
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 13, Rule 7
D. Order 15, Rule 22
Ans. C
72. What is judicial evidence?
A. is that portion of evidence in general which under the rules of legal procedure is received in Courts as tending to establish the existence of a fact, involved in an issue, submitted to judicial determination
B. is that portion of evidence in general which under the rules of legal procedure is received in Courts as tending to establish non-existence of a fact, involved in an issue, submitted to judicial determination
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
73. The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to:
I. Union list
II. State list
III. Concurrent list Codes:
(a) I
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III.
Ans. (b)
74. The author who declined to accept the Nobel Prize was:
(a) Bertrand Russell
(b) Jean Paul Sartre
(c) William Shakespeare
(d) Rabindranath Tagore.
Ans. (b)
75. Which Indian personality has been chosen for the coveted French honour of Chevalier Award:
(a) Naseeruddin Shah
(b) Kamal Hassan
(c) Sumitra Ghosh
(d) Amitabh Bachchan.
Ans. (b)
76. The Central Government can assign any function to the States:
(a) on the directive of the President
(b) on the recommendation of Parliament
(c) any time it wished to do so
(d) with the consent of the State Government.
Ans. (d)
77. A British Scientist whose Schoolmasters told him he was too stupid to study biology, was awarded 2012 Nobel Prize in Physiology for his pioneering work in cloning. Name the Scientist:
(a) John Gurdon
(b) John Bardeen
(c) Koichi Tanaka
(d) Hans Mayer.
Ans. (a)
78. As per the news published in some newspapers, some Indian business houses are willing to import Uranium from Australia. But due to certain regulatory issues, this is not possible for them. What is/are these regulatory problems particularly those which govern the import/ export of Uranium like materials:
(A) India has a special agreement with USA which does not allow India to import such radioactive materials from anywhere else.
(B) India is not a signatory of Non-Proliferation Treaty. Hence, it cannot import Uranium from Australia or other such countries.
(C) As per WTO rules, the export-import of radioactive material in its raw form is not allowed as it creates health hazards
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C).
Ans. (b)
79. India’s Third Research Centre at Antarctica is named as:
(a) Bharti
(b) Swagatam
(c) Hindustan
(d) Maitri.
Ans. (a)
80. Christiane Lagarde is new Director General of:
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) UNESCO
(d) Asian Development Bank.
Ans. (b)
81. Which one of these political leaders won the Noble Prize for literature:
(a) Benito Mussolini
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) William Gladstone.
Ans. (c)
82. The place where India is setting up a Gamma Ray Telescope is:
(a) Bangalore
(b) Hubli
(c) Hanle
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
83. India does not have a single branch/office of any one of its banks in which of the following countries:
(a) United Kingdom
(b) Russia
(c) USA
(d) Nepal.
Ans. (b)
84. Who said this: “A system of Government which is almost quasi-federal… a unitary State with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal State with subsidiary unitary features”:
(a) Jennings
(b) Prof. K.C. Wheare
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) V.N. Shukla.
Ans. (b)
85. The district that ranked at the top as per literacy rate of census 2011 is:
(a) Serchhip
(b) Ernakulam
(c) Bijapur
(d) Aizawl.
Ans. (a)
86. Which of the following is not a parameter of “Globalisation of Economy” in Indian context:
(a) Promoting local industries to cater to the needs of the consumers in Tier II and Tier III cities. The production from metros should be reserved only for exports.
(b) Reduction of Trade barriers to permit free flow of goods and services amongst various nations.
(c) Developing an environment in which free flow of capital can take place.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
87. Which economic theory is also known as the Theory of Income Determination:
(a) The theory of international trade
(b) Theory of allocation
(c) The Subsistence Theory
(d) The Keynesian Theory.
Ans. (d)
88. The leading trade theorist of the world is:
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Jagdish Bhagwati
(c) Joseph Stiglitz
(d) Pranab Bardhan.
Ans. (b)
89. How can the age of earth be estimated:
(a) Uranium dating
(b) Atomic clocks
(c) Radio carbon dating
(d) Biological clocks.
Ans. (a)
90. Ozone layer is important because:
(a) it helps in photosynthesis
(b) it prevents earth’s radiation from escaping
(c) it filters ultra-violet rays selectively
(d) it blocks ultra-violet rays completely.
Ans. (c)
91. Xerophthalmia is a disease caused due to the deficiency of:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D.
Ans. (a)
92. Which of the following panels was formed to put forward recommendations on GAAR:
(a) Shome Panel
(b) Rangrajan Panel
(c) Kelkar Panel
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
93. Chemically diamond is made up of:
(a) Berellium
(b) Carbon
(c) Magnesium
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
94. Which satellite system is used for the monitoring and management of resources:
(a) INSAT
(b) IRS
(c) VSAT
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
95. Multispectral cameras used in remote sensing satellites usually take …………………………… photographs at the same time of the same area using different colour filters:
(a) one to two
(b) four to six
(c) ten to twelve
(d) sixteen to twenty.
Ans. (b)
96. Multispectral cameras carried on board Remote- Sensing Satellites use solid-state electronic detectors known as:
(a) Video-Coupled Devices (VCDs)
(b) Image-Coupled Devices (ICDs)
(c) Charge-Coupled Devices (CCDs)
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (c)
97. ‘Cartosat’ is also known as………………………… :
(a) IRS-P3
(b) IRS-P6
(c) IRS-P4
(d) IRS -P5.
Ans. (d)
98. The medicine used to fight plague:
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Quinin
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Penicillin.
Ans. (a)
99. Whatever meanings are ascribed to…………………. it is contrasted with Natural law:
(a) utilitarianism
(b) Positivism
(c) Grundnorm
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
100. The Vienna School was known as:
(a) pure theory of law
(b) historical theory of law
(c) philosophical school of law
(d) analytical theory of law.
Ans. (a)
101. Austin was visionary enough to admit himself that his theory is:
(a) fallible
(b) infallible
(c) exceptional
(d) natural.
Ans. (a)
102. In modern times where does the sovereignty vests:
(a) in the State
(b) Parliament
(c) judiciary
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (a)
103… carries two payloads on board viz., Ocean Colour Monitor (OCM) and Multi- frequency Scanning Microwave Radiometer (MSMR):
(a) IRS-P5
(b) IRS-P3
(c) IRS-P6
(d) IRS-P4.
Ans. (c)
104. Based on the information provided by OCM, which are the various applications for scientific and operational use in the following areas:
(i) Measurement of phytoplankton
(ii) Identification of potential fishery zones
(iii) Delineation of ocean currents and eddies
(iv) Sediment dynamics
(a) only (i)
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) all of the above
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.
Ans. (c)
105. What is true with UN intervention in terrorism activities of one state with other State:
(a) UN has no role in combating terrorism other than passing resolution
(b) UN has to compel the offending State
(c) UN has to act upon the concerned Repatriation Act
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
106. Economic and Social Council of the United Nations Organisation consists of:
(a) 50 members
(b) 51 members i
(c) 52 members
(d) 54 members.
Ans. (d)
107. The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the UN. He is elected by:
(a) General Assembly
(b) General Assembly on recommendation of the Security Council
(c) General Assembly by 2/3rds majority
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
108. The Headquarters of UN is at First Avenue, UN Plaza, USA:
(a) San Francisco
(b) Washington
(c) New York
(d) Chicago.
Ans. (c)
109. The Headquarters of World Trade Organisation (WTO) is at:
(a) Geneva (Switzerland)
(b) Washington D.C. (U.S.A.)
(c) London (United Kingdom)
(d) Beizing (China).
Ans. (a)
110. The Headquarters of International Labour Organisation is at:
(a) Geneva (Switzerland)
(b) Rome (Italy)
(c) Washington D.C. (USA)
(d) Vienna (Austria).
Ans. (a)
111. The Headquarters of World Food and Agriculture Organisation is at:
(a) Geneva (Switzerland)
(b) Rome (Italy)
(c) Washington D.C. (USA)
(d) Vienna (Austria).
Ans. (b)
112. Rainbow has- (Choose incorrect statement)
A. red light as its outer most colour towards sky
B. red light as its inner-most colour towards earth.
C. violet light as its innermost colour towards earth.
D. its curvature bent towards earth.
Ans: B
113. In big cities, air pollution is mainly due to
A. burning of fossil fuel
B. thermal power plant.
C. sewage
D. suspended particles.
Ans: A
114. As per Austin’s command theory what are the customs and judicial decision:
(a) positive law
(b) positive morality
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
115. Where do you find the international law in the Austinian analysis:
(a) positive morality
(b) positive law
(c) natural law
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (a)
116. Prior to enactment of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, in which of the following schools of Mitakshara were females recognised as heirs?
I. Mithila School
II. Bombay School
III. Benares School
IV. Madras School
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. Ill, IV
D. All of these
Ans: D
117. Which of the following is correct meaning of bhinna gotra sapindas under Mitakshara?
A. All agnate sapindas belonging to same gotra as the deceased
B. All sapindas agnates or cognates belonging to same gotra as the deceased
C. All sapindas agnates also called bandhus belonging to different gotra or family from the deceased
D. All sapindas belonging to different gotra or family from the deceased
Ans: D
118. The technique used to detect the paternal character of an offspring is
A. Protein synthesis
B. Chromosome counting
C. Quantitative synthesis of DNA
D. DNA finger printing
Ans: C
119. The second Buddhist Council was summoned by
A. Bimbisara
B. Kalasoka
C. Ananda
D. Asoka
Ans: B
120. Under the Muslim Women (Protection of the Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, a divorced woman shall be entitled to which of the following?
I. A reasonable and fair provision and maintenance to be made and paid to her within the iddat period by her former husband
II. Where she herself maintains the children born to her before or after her divorce, a reasonable and fair provision and maintenance to be made and paid by her former husband for a period of two years from the respective dates of birth of such children
III. An amount equal to the sum of mahr or dower agreed to be paid to her after her marriage or at any time thereafter according to the Muslim Law
IV. All the properties given to her before or at the time of marriage or after her marriage by her relatives or friends or the husband or any relatives of the husband or his friends
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. I, IV
D. All of these
Ans: D
121. The Young Bengal Movement was inspired by
A. Raja Rammohan Roy
B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C. David Hare
D. Henry Vivian Derozio
Ans: D
122. Strafford Cripps was a member of the
A. Conservative party
B. Labour party
C. Liberal party
D. Official hierarchy
Ans: B
123. Which of the following cannot be a defence in a suit of specific performance?
A. Escalation in price
B. The dismissal of suit of specific performance of an earlier agreement
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
124. In trespass to land, it is essential to have-
A. Involuntarily entry
B. Voluntary entry
C. Absence of mistake
D. Presence of malafide intentions
Ans: B
125. ‘A’ threatened to commit suicide if his wife did not execute a sale deed in favour of his brother. The wife executed the sale deed.
This transaction is:
A. Voidable due to undue influence
B. Voidable due to coercion
C. Void being immoral
D. Void being forbidden by law
Ans: B
126. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. The principle of master’s liability for the acts of a servant is based on the doctrine is respondent superior
B. The rule of master’s liability for the acts of the servant is based on the maxim qui facit per alium facit per se
C. Master’s liability for the torts of his servant is absolute and it is immaterial whether the tort was committed in ht course of his employment of not
D. The rule of master’s liability for the act of the servant is based on the capacity to apply, in most of the cases, servant is not financially in good position to pay the damages
Ans: C
127. Which of the following are sub classes of Gotraja sapindas under Mitakshara?
I. Sapindas
II. Samanodakas
III. Bandhus
IV. Nibandhakars
A. I and II
B. Ill and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
Ans: A
128. Which of the following is traditional definition of Dharma?
A. Institution which enounce rules of Smritis
B. Collection of Smritis and customs
C. What is followed by those learned in the Vedas and what is approved by the conscious of the virtuous who are exempt from hatred and inordinate affection
D. What is approved by the conscious of the virtuous who are exempt from hatred and inordinate affection, and written in Smritis
Ans: C
129. A theft had been committed in the defendant’s house. He informed the police that he suspected the plaintiff for the same. Therefore the plaintiff was arrested by the police. A complaint was filed by the defendant but the plaintiff was subsequently discharged by the magistrate as the final report showed that there was no evidence connecting the plaintiff with the theft. The plaintiff filed a suit for damages on the ground of malicious prosecution.
In the above case, which one of the following decisions is correct?
A. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the defendant
B. The plaintiff is entitled to damages from the police
C. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from both
D. The plaintiff is not entitled to claim damages for malicious prosecution at all
Ans: D
130. The tort of negligence exists because
A. “The absence of intent relieves a wrong-doer of any liability.”
B. “Accidents will happen.”
C. “A reasonable person owes a duty of care to the world.”
D. “Any harm caused must result in punishment.”
Ans: B