100 Important Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for Odisha Judicial Service (OJS) preliminary exam!
1. On which date the statue of the International Criminal Court has come into force:
(a) 10 December, 2003
(b) 24 October, 2002
(c) 01 July, 2002
(d) 01 January, 2003.
Ans. (c)
2. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter the Security Council has the power to use force against a State:
(a) Article 41
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 2(4)
(d) Article 24.
Ans. (d)
3. Who can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question:
(a) Any member of the United Nations
(b) The highest court of Justice of any nation
(c) The General Assembly of the United Nations
(d) Any permanent member of the Security Council.
Ans. (c)
4. Which one of the following organs of the United Nations Performs legislative functions:
(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Economic and Social Council
(c) The Trusteeship
(d) The Security Council.
Ans. (a)
5. Which one of the following is correctly matched:
(a) Information in cognizable offence Sec. 154
(b) Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses Sec. 161
(c) Search by Police Officer Sec. 166
(d) Cases to be sent to Magistrate when evidence is sufficient Sec. 171.
Ans. (a)
6. Which one of the following combinations are not correctly matched:
A. Anticipatory bail 1. Sec. 437, Cr.P.C.
B. Summary Dismissal 2. Sec. 384, of appeal Cr.P.C.
C. Appeal in case of 3. Sec. 376, acquittal Cr.P.C.
D. Reference to 4. Sec. 397, High Court Cr.P.C.
Select correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:
(a) A-1; B-2 and D-4
(b) A-1; C-3 and D-4
(c) A-1; B-2 and C-3
(d) B-2; C-3 and D-4.
Ans. (b)
7. Who of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section 125(4) of the Cr.P.C.:
(a) Wife living in adultery
(b) Wife living separately by mutual consent
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b).
Ans. (c)
8. Save in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after Sunset and before Sunrise, and where such exceptional circumstances to arrest exist, the woman police officer shall obtain the prior permission of the following:
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Superintendent of Police
(c) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(d) Sessions Judge.
Ans. (c)
9. Who said that “Ownership is a plenary control over an object”:
(a) Hibbert
(b) Austin
(c) Holland
(d) Salmond.
Ans. (c)
10. The concept of “Living Law” was expounded by which jurist:
(a) Austin
(b) Ehrlich
(c) Pound
(d) Holland.
Ans. (b)
11. Who presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker:
(a) Leader of the opposition
(b) Senior most member of the House
(c) A member of the six members panel determined by the Speaker.
(d) Secretary General of the Lok Sabha.
Ans. (c)
12. The Finance Commission, as laid down in Article 280 of the Constitution, is constituted by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President of India
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
(d) Parliament
Ans. (b)
13. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act came into force from:
(a) 1st April, 2008
(b) 1st January, 2009
(c) 1st April, 2010
(d) 1st July, 2011
Ans. (c)
14. A proposal is revoked:
(a) Only by the death or insanity of the proposer itself
(b) By the death or insanity if the fact of the death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
(c) By the death or insanity of the proposer if the fact of his death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance
(d) None of the above is correct.
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched:
(1) Responsibility of finder Sec. 71 of goods
(2) Surety’s liability Sec. 128
(3) Sub-agent Sec. 191
(4) Bailee’s particular lien Sec.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) (1), (2), and (4)
(b) (1), (2), and (3)
(c) (2), (3), and (4)
(d) (3), (4), and (1)
Ans. (b)
16. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under Section 125, Cr.P.C.:
(a) Divorced wife so long as she does not marry
(b) Unmarried sister
(c) Adoptive mother
(d) Illegitimate minor child.
Ans. (b)
17. When the High Court or any Sessions Judge calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as:
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
18. A report of person arrested without warrant shall be given by the officer-in-charge of police station to:
(a) Only District Magistrate
(b) Only Sub-divisional Magistrate
(c) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(d) Either to the District Magistrate or Sub- divisional magistrate.
Ans. (d)
19. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may under Section 166A of the Cr.P.C. issue a:
(a) Search warrant
(b) Letter of requisition
(c) Letter of request
(d) Written order.
Ans. (c)
20. Analytical positivism does not mean that:
(a) Laws are in the nature of commands
(b) Law as it is and as it ought to be have to be separated
(c) Certain inherent moral quality is an essential feature of law
(d) Analysis of legal concepts is distinct from critical evaluation.
Ans. (c)
21. “Nature has placed man under the empire of pleasure and pain”. It has been said by:
(a) Bentham
(b) Austin
(c) Pound
(d) Hobbes.
Ans. (a)
22. Application for anticipatory bail may be made before:
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) High Court
(c) Sessions Court
(d) Both (b) and (c).
Ans. (d)
23. Point out the incorrect statement:
(a) In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
(b) A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
(c) An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
24. The power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High Court can be exercised on an application by which one of the following:
(a) Registrar of the High Court concerned
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Chairperson of the Bar Council of India
(d) Solicitor-General of India.
Ans. (b)
25. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence passed by the Sessions Court prior to its execution:
(a) Section 366
(b) Section 368
(c) Section 369
(d) Section 371.
Ans. (a)
26. Which one of the following statements is wrong: It a person forcibly resists the endeavour to arrest him, the Police Officer may:
(a) Use all the means necessary to effect the arrest
(b) Cause the death of such person irrespective of the offence he has committed
(c) Cause the death of such person accused of murder
(d) Cause the death of such person accused of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
Ans. (b)
27. Point out incorrect response:
The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence shall be:
(a) Six months if offence is punishable with fine only
(b) One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
(c) Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years but not exceeding three years
(d) Five years, if the offence is punishable with death sentence.
Ans. (d)
28. In which case has the Supreme Court held that Section 125, Cr.P.C. was applicable to all irrespective of their religion:
(a) Mohd. Umar Khan v. Gulshan Begum
(b) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(c) Mst. Zohara Khatoon v. Mohd. Ibrahim
(d) Noor Saba Khatoon v. Mohd. Quasim.
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the following offences is not compoundable:
(a) Offence under section 323, I.P.C.
(b) Offence under section 334, I.P.C
(c) Offence under section 448, I.P.C.
(d) Offence under section 307, I.P.C.
Ans. (d)
30. “The choosing between two rights where there is a clear intention that both were not intended to be enjoyed”, is known as:
(a) Doctrine of lis pendens
(b) Doctrine of election
(c) Doctrine of part performance
(d) Doctrine of estoppel.
Ans. (b)
31. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that, the Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may, with the consent of the court at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any person in respect of any offence for which he is tried:
(a) Section 304
(b) Section 306
(c) Section 321
(d) Section 313.
Ans. (c)
32. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act has been substituted for the old section by the Information Technology Act, 2000:
(a) Section 39
(b) Section 22
(c) Section 47
(d) Section 65.
Ans. (a)
33. Which one of the following is not included in the expression ‘Court’ under the Indian Evidence Act:
(a) All judges
(b) All persons legally authorized to take evidence
(c) All Magistrates
(d) Arbitrator.
Ans. (d)
34. The case of Sawal Das v. State of Bihar is related to:
(a) Plea of Alibi
(b) Rule of Res gestae
(c) Rule of Estoppel
(d) Rule of Res judicata.
Ans. (b)
35. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act makes the provision that there shall be no new trial on the ground of improper admission or rejection of evidence:
(a) Section 166
(b) Section 165
(c) Section 167
(d) Section 161.
Ans. (c)
36. Who has written the following words: “Law grows with the growth of people, strengthens with the strength of people and finally it dies away as the nation loses its nationality”:
(a) Hart
(b) Savigny
(c) Bentham
(d) Spencer.
Ans. (b)
37. Who defined law as the “de psychologised command”:
(a) Kelsen
(b) Bentham
(c) Austin
(d) Salmond.
Ans. (a)
38. The principal jurist of the Philosophical School was:
(a) Herbert Spencer
(b) Sir Henry Maine
(c) Max Waber
(d) Hegel.
Ans. (d)
39. Name the jurist who is called as “Darwinian before Darwin” and “Sociologist before Sociologists”:
(a) Kelsen
(b) Savigny
(c) Pound
(d) Gray.
Ans. (b)
40. “Law should continue to support minimum morality” has been pleaded by:
(a) Lord Devlin
(b) Hart
(c) Lon Fuller
(d) Dwarkin.
Ans. (a)
41. Which among the following statements is true:
(a) The Resolution of United Nations Organisation (UNO) is not binding on the member countries
(b) The Resolution of United Nations Organisation is binding on the member countries
(c) The Resolution of United Nations Organisation is binding upon a country if it is sanctioned by other country
(d) The Resolution of United Nations Organisation is binding if White House approves it.
Ans. (a)
42. Arrange the following engines in descending order of their efficiency:
(I) Diesel
(II) Petrol
(III) Steam
(a) I, II, III
(b) III, II, I
(c) II, I, HI
(d) II, III, I.
Ans. (b)
43. Which of the following is true about s. 15, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. It enumerates the persons, besides the actual contractors, who are entitled to sue on a contract
B. It involves no principle peculiar to the remedy of specific performance
C. This section corresponds with s. 23 of the Repealed Act
D. All of these
Ans. D
44. Heart beats…………. in fever:
(a) Faster
(b) Slower
(c) Unevenly
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
45. Deficiency of proteins causes:
(a) Kwashiorkar
(b) Xerophthalmia
(c) Goitre
(d) Tuberculosis.
Ans. (a)
46. Which of the following transponders are very crucial for the VSAT services for business operations corporate networks etc.:
(a) S – band
(b) XC-band
(c) C – band
(d) Ku-band.
Ans. (b)
47. Which of the following is a condition for valid acknowledgement of paternity by a Mahomedan?
A. The person acknowledged must not be known to be the child of another man
B. The person acknowledged must not have repudiated the acknowledgement
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
48. F a Mahomedan father of 25 years of age, acknowledges S of 17 years of age as a son. Which of the following statements will apply?
A. The acknowledgement is valid in case of Shia law
B. Acknowledgement is invalid in case of Sunni law
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
49. Which of the following property will be considered as self-acquired property of a Hindu?
I. Property granted by government to a member of a joint family is normally self-acquired property of done
II. All acquisitions made by means of learning are self-acquired property
III. Ancestral property lost to a family, and recovered by a member without assistance of joint family property
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Ill and I
D. I, II and III
Ans: D
50. Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) system was commissioned with the launch of IRS – 1A in the year:
(a) 1985
(b) 1987
(c) 1989
(d) 1988.
Ans. (d)
51. Where the Remote Sensing satellite are usually deployed in:
(a) Sunsynchronous Polar Orbit at a height of 800-1000 km
(b) Sunsynchronous Polar Orbit at a height of 800-1000 km
(c) Sunsynchronous Polar Orbit at a height of 36,000 km
(d) Sunsynchronous Equatorial Orbit at a height of 36,000 km.
Ans. (a)
52. Which of the following is true about removing the strong presumption under s. 10, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Mere specification in the agreement of the amount to be paid in the event of breach of contract
B. Sufficiency or insufficiency of such a specification is a matter of evidence
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
53. Which of the following is the usual form of the decree in a suit of specific performance?
A. The agreement is ordered to be specifically performed
B. The agreement is ordered to be carried into execution with a further provision about the details of the steps to be taken by the parties
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
54. The satellite passes over the same spot on Earth every _____________:
(a) week
(b) 10-13 days
(c) 16-22 days
(d) month.
Ans. (c)
55. Austin was the first Professor of Jurisprudence in the:
(a) University of Chicago
(b) University of London
(c) University of Warwick
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
56. The maximum percentage in the atmosphere is of:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Helium.
Ans. (b)
57. Rickets is a disease caused due to deficiency of:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D.
Ans. (d)
58. Towards the end of the Nineteenth century, changing human affairs had brought about an ever-increasing preoccupation with ………….. and troubled social conditions:
(a) Conflicting ideologies
(b) Similar ideologies
(d) None of these.
Ans. (a)
59. ……………. were the founders of British positivism:
(a) Bentham and his disciple Austin
(b) H.L.A. Hart and Kelsen
(c) Savigny and Roscoe Pound
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
60. In India who is supreme:
(a) Constitution
(b) President of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister.
Ans. (a)
61. The failure to pay rent is an act of the firm within the meaning of which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
A. Section 22
B. Section 23
C. Section 24
Ans: D
62. Explanation to which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 lays down that participation in profits is not conclusive, and cannot of itself constitute a partnership?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Ans: D
63. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930:
(a) Against atrocities committed on Harijans
(b) Against imposition of Salt Tax Laws
(c) Against the commencement of communal awards
(d) All the above.
Ans. (b)
64. Gandhiji’s “Champaran Movement” was for:
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) The security of rights of Harijans
(c) Solving the problem of Indigo workers
(d) Maintaining the unity of Hindu society.
Ans. (c)
65. During the Sultanate period in ancient India, the accession of a king was traditionally done by:
(a) Battle between probable candidates
(b) Succession
(c) Nomination
(d) Election.
Ans. (a)
66. Which one of the following does not find a place in the Preamble of the Constitution of India:
(a) Integrity
(b) Sovereignty
(c) Morality
(d) Justice
Ans. (c)
67. In which case did the Supreme Court give ruling that the Preamble was not a Part of the Constitution:
(a) Berubari’s case, AIR 1960 SC 845
(b) Keshavananda Bharati’s case, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(c) Golak Nath’s case, AIR 1967 SC 1643
(d) D.K. Basu’s case, AIR 1997 SC 610.
Ans. (a)
68. Preamble to the Constitution is the Part of the Constitution itself. This observation of Supreme Court was held in case of:
(a) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(b) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011
(c) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610
(d) R.S. Nayak v. A.R. Antulay, AIR 1986 SC 2045.
Ans. (a)
69. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is:
(a) Not a part of the Constitution
(b) A part of the Constitution but it neither confers any power nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution
(c) A part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity
(d) A part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution.
Ans. (c)
70. The concept of Secular State is that the State will not make any discrimination on the ground of religion, caste or community against any person professing any particular form of religious faith. The Secularism is embodied in:
(a) Preamble of Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Judicial Independence.
Ans. (a)
71. The Great Bath is the most famous structure of:
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Harappa
(c) Lothal
(d) Kalibangan.
Ans. (a)
72. Which one of the following is not suspected to be a cause of decline of Indus Valley civilization:
(a) Migration
(b) Aryan Invasion
(c) Floods
(d) Earthquake.
Ans. (a)
73. Which of the following Acts does not impose disability upon members of a Hindu undivided family in the matter of entering into a contract inter se with a stranger?
A. Indian Contract Act
B. Indian Penal Code
C. Code of Criminal Procedure
D. None of these
Ans: A
74. The plaintiff-landlord could elect to proceed against the contracting alone by virtue of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
A. Section 20
B. Section 22
C. Section 25
D. Section 27
Ans: C
75. Which of the following is an alias for the partners?
A. Firm
B. Partnership
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
76. Rig Veda is a collection of………….. hymns:
(a) 1028
(b) 1000
(c) 1038
(d) 786.
Ans. (a)
77. There are 108 Upanishads in India which contain:
(a) Philosophical knowledge
(b) Rituals
(c) Ceremonies
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
78. One Nautical mile is equal to:
(a) 12 kms
(b) 2 kms
(c) 1.852 kms
(d) 1.1 kms.
Ans. (c)
79. Centre for e-Governance is set up in:
(a) The premises of Electronic Niketan, New Delhi
(b) The premises of Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
(c) In the premises of Parliament, New Delhi
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
80. National Highway No.1 links Delhi and:
(a) Amritsar
(b) Allahabad
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai.
Ans. (a)
81. Which of the following can claim specific performance?
I. An assignee of an option of repurchase where the option has been exercised by the assignor in due conformity with the terms of the contract
II. Assignees and successor’s in interest of parties to a partition deed containing a pre-emption clause
III. Co-purchaser who has got assigned the rights from the other co-purchaser
IV. A stranger having an assignment of the right of reconveyance from one heir of the party to the sale deed designated in the sale deed as beneficiary to the exclusion of the other heirs
A. II, III, IV
B. II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. All of these
Ans: D
82. Which of the following are true about the word ‘possession’ used in s. 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. It is prima facie proof of property
B. It is good title against all who cannot show better title
C. It constitutes by itself, a limited title to the property
D. All of these
Ans: D
83. Which of the following are principles of mutuality admitted of exceptions?
A. Conditional contracts
B. Unilateral contracts
C. Contracts in the nature of undertakings
D. All of these
Ans: D
84. Which of the following is a riverine port:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Chennai
(c) Cochin
(d) Mumbai.
Ans. (a)
85. The highest Indian peak is:
(a) Everest
(b) Godwin Austin
(c) Kanchenjunga
(d) Nanga Parbat.
Ans. (c)
86. Two National Highways-Kanya Kumari to Srinagar and Porbandar to Silcher, which are being constructed under National Highway Development Project, shall meet together at:
(a) Bhopal
(b) Gwalior
(c) Jhansi
(d) Nagpur.
Ans. (c)
87. “Rejection of Plaint” is mentioned under:
(a) Order VII, Rule 11
(b) Order VI, Rule 13
(c) Order VII, Rule 12
(d) Order VIII, Rule 4.
Ans. (a)
88. Which of the following combinations are not correctly matched:
1. Execution of decree Sec. 77, C.P.C.
2. Letter of request Sec. 82, C.P.C.
3. Legal representative Sec. 50, C.P.C.
4. Institution of suit Sec. 28, C.P.C.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1), (2) and (4)
(c) (1), (3) and (4)
(d) (2), (3) and (4).
Ans. (b)
89. Which one of the following cases is on second appeal:
(a) Madan Lai v. Bai Krishna
(b) Sudhir G. Angur v. M. Sanjeev
(c) Sheodan Singh v. Daryao Kunwar
(d) Harshad Chiman Lai Modi v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.
Ans. (a)
90. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under:
(a) Order V, Rule 9A, C.P.C.
(b) Order V, Rule 9, C.P.C.
(c) Order IV, Rule 7, C.P.C. ,
(d) Order VI, Rule 6, C.P.C.
Ans. (a)
91. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for the following:
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) Appeal to the Supreme Court.
Ans. (c)
92. Order XXIII of the Civil Procedure Code applies to the following:
(a) Withdrawal of suits
(b) Appeals
(c) Execution proceeding
(d) All the above.
Ans. (a)
93. What is the term of office of the judges of International Court of Justice:
(a) 5 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 9 years
(d) 15 years
Ans. (c)
94. The first Indian appointed as a judge of International Court of Justice was:
(a) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(b) Justice Nagendra Singh
(c) Justice Krishna Iyyer
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
95. Where is the headquarters of International Court of Justice situated:
(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) Hague
(d) London
Ans. (c)
96. In which one of the following Articles of U.N.O. the ‘principle of Self determination’ has been provided:
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 2
(c) Article 3
(d) Article 4
Ans. (a)
97. How many members are there in Security Council of U.N.O.:
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
Ans. (c)
98. What is the term of non-permanent members of Security Council of U.N.O.:
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
Ans. (a)
99. Which country has conducted Nuclear Test in February, 2013:
(a) Iran
(b) Israel
(c) South Korea
(d) North Korea
Ans. (d)
100. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations:
(a) International Court of Justice
(b) Economic and Social Council
(c) Trusteeship Council
(d) International Labour Organization
Ans. (d)