Odisha Judicial Service (OJS): Practice Questions and Answers for 2018, 2019, 2020 , 2021 and 2022

Article Shared by

Odisha Judicial Service (OJS): Practice Questions and Answers for 2018, 2019, 2020, 2021 and 2022!

1. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with opinion on relationship, when relevant?

A. Section 39

B. Section 50

C. Section 45

D. Section 42

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is true of relief of specific performance?

A. It is discretionary

B. It is not merely given because it is lawful but because it is bound by judicial principles

C. It cannot be claimed as a matter of right

D. All of these

Ans: D

2. Which of the following is true about the term ‘suit’ in s. 6, Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. It includes proceeding in execution of a decree passed in a suit under this section

B. No appeal, therefore lies from an order made in execution proceedings

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans: C

3. Which of the following is true about the object of s.6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. It is to protect possession

B. It affirms to an important principle of substantive law

C. It is to discourage people from taking law into their own hands, however good their title may be

D. All of these

Ans: D

4. Which of the following is true about s.3, Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. It saves any right to relief a person may have under any contract

B. It saves any right to relief a person may have under the operation of the Registration act, 1905 on documents

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans: C

5. Which of the following is true about s. 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. It limits the kinds of suits

B. It lies down that after the expiry of six months, the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure should be followed

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans: B

6. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to certified copies of foreign judicial records?

A. Section 86

B. Section 16

C. Section 13

D. Section 18

Ans. A

7. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides details regarding eligibility to seek specific performance?

A. s. 10

B. s. 15

C. s. 20

D. None of these

Ans: B

8. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is counterpart of s. 15 of the same Act?

A. s. 15

B. s. 17

C. s. 19

D. None of these

Ans: C

9. Which of the following sections of the Repealed Act, 1877, s. 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 brings together?

A. s. 12 (a)

B. s. 12 (b)

C. Both (A) and (D)

D. s. 12 (e)

Ans: C

10. Which of the following is true about s. 16, Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. Gives grounds to defence based on plaintiff’s conduct

B. The Court has regard to circumstances outside the contract and looks to the conduct of the plaintiff

C. This section imposes personal bar

D. All of these

Ans: D

11. Which of the following is true about removing the strong presumption under s. 10, Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. Mere specification in the agreement of the amount to be paid in the event of breach of contract

B. Sufficiency or insufficiency of such a specification is a matter of evidence

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans: B

12. A principal is least likely to be found liable for the torts an agent if the agent is-

A. A newly-hired employee

B. A youth

C. An independent contractor

D. Found responsible for having committed an international tort

Ans: C

13. Consider the following statements:

Contract can be avoided if the consent is obtained under:

I. Mistake of law

II. Mistake of fact

III. Coercion

IV. Undue influence

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4

Ans: B

14. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India give a ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the fundamental rights

A. State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidyawati

B. Shuam Sunder Vs. State of Rajasthan

C. Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram Jain Vs. State of U.P

D. People Union for Democratic Rights Vs. State Bihar

Ans: D

15. Which of the following is the true test for the validity and enforceability of contract by a minor’s guardian?

A. The competency of the guardian

B. Legal necessity

C. Benefit to the minor’s estate

D. All of these

Ans: D

16. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to abutment of suicide by married women?

A. Section 100B

B. Section 101A

C. Section 112-A

D. Section 113-A

Ans. D

17. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to dowry death?

A. Section 113-B

B. Section 101-A

C. Section 102-B

D. Section 112-B

Ans. A

18. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with private documents?

A. Section 83

B. Section 75

C. Section 69

D. Section 65

Ans. B

19. Three separate companies incorporated under the Companies Act carry out a joint venture as an unregistered firm. The venture is thus a_______________.

A. Partnership under the Partnership Act

B. Income tax entity of an unregistered firm of partnership firm under the Income Tax Act

C. Association of persons under section 3 of the Income Tax Act

D. None of these

Ans: C

20. Resistance or obstruction to lawful apprehension or escape or rescue in cases not otherwise provided for is dealt under

A. Section 223 B of IPC

B. Section 224 B of IPC

C. Section 225 B of IPC

D. Section 226 B of IPC

Ans: C

21. Intentional insult or interruption to a public servant sitting in any stage of a judicial proceeding is dealt under

A. Section 228 of IPC

B. Section 227 of IPC

C. Section 226 of IPC

D. Section 225 of IPC

Ans: A

22. In which of the following cases the doctrine of laches is of great importance?

A. Where the persons have agreed to become partners

B. One of them has unfairly left the other to do all the work, and then, there being a profit comes forward and claims a share of it

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans: C

23. Which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act clearly states that all the partners are jointly and severally liable for the acts of the partners of the firm representing the firm?

A. Section 5 and 18

B. Section 19 and 25

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans: C

24. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of statements in maps, charts and plans?

A. Section 32

B. Section 16

C. Section 36

D. Section 37

Ans. C

25. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the right of adverse party as to writing used to refresh memory?

A. Section 156

B. Section 152

C. Section 161

D. Section 160

Ans. C

26. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with things said or done by conspirator in reference to common design?

A. Section 6

B. Section 10

C. Section 12

D. Section 8

Ans. B

27. Which of the following statements regarding the object of Article 31B of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?

I. Article 31B has been inserted, by way of abundant caution, to save the particular Acts included in the 9^th schedule of the constitution, notwithstanding any decision of a court or tribunal that any of those Acts is void for contravention of any fundamental right.

II. Article 31B is not illustrative of the rule contained in Article 31 A, but stands independent of it, and validates certain Acts specified in the Ninth schedule, though the compensation provided was not real or adequate.

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Neither I nor II

D. Both I and II

Ans. D

28. Which of the following interpretations of the Constitution regarding the utility of Directives is/are found to be correct?

I. Even though the implementation of a Directive Principle may cause hardship to a few individuals, it should be upheld in the larger interests of the community.

II. In view of the absolute prohibition of consumption of liquor in Article 47, there cannot be any fundamental right to manufacture and sell intoxicating liquor.

A. I and II

B. Neither I nor II

C. Only I

D. Only II

Ans. A

29. Which kinds of justice have been mentioned in Article 38 in Part IV of the Indian Constitution?

A. Social

B. Economic

C. Political

D. All of them

Ans. D

30. The Legislature intended to extend the provisions of Section 16(3), Limitation Act, 1963 in which of the following?

A. Cases covered by Articles 61(a) and (b) of the Limitation Act, 1963

B. Cases covered by articles 63(b), 64, 65 and 66 of the Limitation Act, 1963

C. either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans. (B)

31. Section 17, Limitation Act, 1963 corresponds to which of the following sections of the U.K Limitation Act, 1939 [Now Section 32(1) (a) of Limitation Act, 1980]?

A. Section 23

B. Section 24

C. Section 25

D. Section 26

Ans. (D)

32. Section 17, Limitation Act, 1963 includes which of the following?

A. A relief in respect of concealed document

B. The extension of limitation for execution of decree on the ground of fraud of judgment-debtor as laid down in the repealed Section 48(2), C.P.C, 1908

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. (C)

33. In which of the following respects Section 17, Limitation Act, 1963 differs from Section 18, Limitation Act, 1908?

A. Whereas the fact that the suit or application is based merely on fraud will not suffice under Section 18 of the repealed Act and it should be further shown that by means of such fraud the person injured was kept from knowledge of his right to sue

B. Limitation now starts from the discovery of the fraud and not from the time when the fraud first became known to the person injured

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. (C)

34. Section 17(2), Limitation Act incorporates the principle contained in the proviso to sub-section (2) of which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

A. Section 45

B. Section 46

C. Section 47

D. Section 48

Ans. (D)

35. What is the subject matter of Section 23 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

A. Special provisions respecting dwelling houses

B. Special provisions regarding persons governed by marumakkattayam and aliyasantana Laws

C. Right of child in womb

D. None of the above

Ans. D

36. Which of the following statements is true for The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

I. Murderer is automatically disqualified from inheriting the properly

II. Widow of a brother shall be disqualified from inheriting in case she remarries

III. Widow of brother’s son will be disqualified from inheriting if she remarries

A. I only

B. II and III

C. II only

D. I, II and III

Ans. C

37. Which of the following sections deals with “disqualification of murderer from inheritance “?

A. Section 23

B. Section 24

C. Section 25

D. Section 26

Ans. C

38. Which of the following statements is true for The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

A. For the purpose of this act murderer will be disqualified only if he has been convicted of murder or abetment of murder

B. A person prosecuted for murder but acquitted of the charges will also be disqualified for inheritance

C. Both are true

D. Both are false

Ans. D

39. Which of the following sections deals with matters pertaining to “disqualification of certain people due to disease, defect etc “?

A. Section 27

B. Section 28

C. Section 29

D. There is no such section

Ans. B

40. Which of the following states have added Chapter II-A after Chapter II in The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

I. State of Andhra Pradesh

II. State of Tamil Nadu

III. State of Maharashtra

IV. State of Nagaland

V. State of Madhya Pradesh

A. I and V

B. II, III and IV

C. I, II and III

D. All of the above

Ans. C

41. Which of the following properties will Section 30 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, govern?

I. Tarwad

II. Tavazhi

III. Kutumba

IV. Kavaru

V. Mom

A. I, III and V

B. II, IV and V

C. I and II

D. All of the above

Ans. D

42. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is counterpart of s. 15 of the same Act?

A. s. 15

B. s. 17

C. s. 19

D. None of these

Ans. C

43. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 recognises and follows the general rule that a stranger to the contract is not a proper defendant to a suit for its enforcement unless it falls with the clause (b) to (e) of that section?

A. s. 17

B. s. 18

C. s. 19

D. s. 20

Ans. C

44. Which of the following sections of the Repealed Act, 1877, s. 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 brings together?

A. s. 12 (a)

B. s. 12 (b)

C. both (A) and (D)

D. s. 12 (e)

Ans. C

45. Which of the following sections of the Repealed Act 1877 has been put together to constitute a complete code in respect of a claim for specific performance in s. 12 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. s. 13 and s. 14

B. s. 15 and s. 16

C. s. 17

D. All of these

Ans. D

46. Which of the following remedies are available upon the breach of obligations by a party to the contract?

A. Damages

B. Specific Performance

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. C

47. Which of the following propositions were laid by the Privy Council who held that it was the duty of the purchaser to take steps necessary for effecting the transfer, including getting a permit in Paul Couvreur v. MG Shapiro case?

A. That reasonable time for getting a permit applies to a contract which falls to be carried out within a reasonable time

B. Where contract falls to be completed within a fixed period and therefore time is of the essence of the contract, to allow the purchaser reasonable time beyond the fixed period to enable to do, what, by the terms of the contract he was required to do, would amount to making a new contract for the parties

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. C

48. A suit under Order XXXVII cannot be filed on the basis of:

(a) an enactment

(b) a guarantee

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. (c)

49. Which of the following can be contemplated as written contracts under Order XXXVII of CPC:

(a) bills/invoices

(b) acknowledgment or a signed statement of account

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. (c)

50. An order refusing the leave to defend under Order XXXVII of CPC can be:

(a) challenged before the court passing the order

(b) challenged through appeal

(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).

Ans. (b)

51. A decree passed in a suit under Order XXXVII of CPC due to non-applying for leave to defend may be set aside:

(a) under Order IX, Rule 13 of CPC

(b) under Order XXXVII, Rule 4 of CPC

(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).

Ans. (b)

52. The Members of the Council of Ministers are:

(a) appointed by the Prime Minister

(b) appointed by the President on the recommendation of Parliament

(d) appointed by the President at his discretion.

Ans. (c)

53. Who allocates portfolios among the Ministers:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President at his discretion

(d) Speaker.

Ans. (c)

54. A person can be a member of Council of Ministers without being a member of Parliament for the maximum period of:

(a) one year

(b) six months

(d) one month.

Ans. (b)

55. ‘IRS’ stands for:

(a) Indian Radio Sensing

(b) Indigenous Radio Sensing

(d) Indigenous Remote Sensing.

Ans. (c)

56. Indian Space Research Organisation was recently conferred ‘Space Pioneer Award’ by the National Space Society (NSS) of which country over the historic feat on successfully sending an orbit to Martian atmosphere in its very first attempt:

(a) France

(b) European Union

(d) USA.

Ans. (a)

57. ‘SROSS’ stands for:

(a) Special Rohini Satellite Series

(b) Series Rohini Stretched Satellite

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (c)

58. Who defined law is command of the sovereign:

(a) Roscoe Pound

(b) Bentham

(d) Kelsen.

Ans. (c)

59. The Latin expression juris prudentia means:

(a) The knowledge of law

(b) Equity

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

60. Who is considered to be father of analytical or positivist thought:

(a) Jeremy Bentham

(b) Austin

(d) Roscoe Pound.

Ans. (b)

61. Deontology is the term used for:

(a) Law making

(b) Amendments

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (c)

62. EPCG denotes:

(a) Export Promotion and Credit Guarantee

(b) Export Promotion and Credit Goods

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

63. The International Conference on “Yoga for Diabetes” has been held in which of the following cities:

(a) Kolkata

(b) Bangalore

(d) Chennai.

Ans. (c)

64. The Judge of a High Court will address his letter of resignation to:

(a) President

(b) Governor

(d) Chief Justice of High Court

Ans. (a)

65. Oath is administered to a Judge of a common High Court for two States by:

(a) President

(b) Governors of all States

(d) Governor, which the court has Principal seat.

Ans. (d)

66. The Supreme Court have original jurisdiction regarding dispute between:

(a) Only Disputes between State or Citizen

(b) Only cases of violation of Fundamental Rights

(d) Both (b) and (c).

Ans. (d)

67. A spring scale reads 20 N (Newton) as it pulls a 5.0 kg mass across a table. What is the magnitude of the force exerted by the mass on the spring scale?

A. 49 N

B. 20 N

C. 5.0 N

D. 4.0 N

Ans: D

68. Light year is a unit of

A. Time

B. Intensity of light

C. Distance

D. None of these

Ans: C

69. Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension is dealt under

A. Section 224 of IPC

B. Section 225 of IPC

C. Section 226 of IPC

D. Section 227 of IPC

Ans: A

70. A causes Z to go within a walled space and locks Z in. Z is thus prevented from proceeding in any direction beyond the circumscribing line of wall.

A. A wrongfully confined Z under Section 330, IPC

B. A wrongfully confined Z under Section 335, IPC

C. A wrongfully confined Z under Section 340, IPC

D. A wrongfully confined Z under Section 345, IPC

Ans: C

71. Resistance or obstruction to the lawful apprehension of any person, or, rescuing him from lawful custody, if charged with a capital offence is dealt under

A. Section 223 of IPC

B. Section 224 of IPC

C. Section 225 of IPC

D. Section 226 of IPC

Ans: C

72. Which of the following is not a class of persons having right of pre-emption under Sunni law?

A. Shafi-i-jar

B. Shafi-i-sharik

C. Shafi-i-khalit

D. Shafi-i-aulad

Ans: D

73. Which of the following hold true for claims of preemption under Mahomedan law?

A. The right in which pre-emption is claimed must exist at the time of sale

B. The right in which pre-emption is claimed must exist at the date of the suit for pre-emption

C. The right in which pre-emption is claimed must exist on the date decree is passed

D. All of the above

Ans: D

74. Which of the following conditions needs to be satisfied for talab-i-ishhad?

A. It must be made in the presence of at least one witness

B. It should be made before talab-i-mowasibat

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B

Ans: D

75. A burn caused by steam is more painful than a burn caused by boiling water because

A. Steam penetrates inside the body

B. Water is heavier than steam

C. Steam has more attacking power

D. Steam contains latent heat

Ans: D

76. The Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is related to:

(a) Only the Fundamental Rights

(b) Only the Civil Rights

(d) The Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose.

Ans. (a)

77. Which High Level Committee is constituted by Union Government to review institutionalization of arbitration mechanism in India:

(a) Urjit Patel Committee

(b) Lodha Committee

(d) Vinod Rai Committee.

Ans. (c)

78. Name the two PSUS which were granted Navratna Status by the Union Government recently:

(a) NBCC and CONCOR

(b) ONGC and NTPC

(d) ONGC and GAIL.

Ans. (a)

79. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted under which provision of the Constitution:

(a) Article 21

(b) Article 39

(d) Article 43A.

Ans. (c)

80. Uniform Civil Code is envisaged in…………… of the Constitution of India:

(a) Article 42

(b) Article. 43

(d) Article 45.

Ans. (c)

81. For bringing a case under section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, it is_________ to show that the respondent.

A. Not necessary, is living in adultery

B. Not necessary, has committed adultery. Presence of opportunity is enough

C. Necessary, is living in adultery

D. Necessary, has not committed adultery

Ans: A

82. The expression___________ has_________ used in section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

A. Adultery, been

B. Adultery, not been

C. Voluntary sexual intercourse, not been

D. Conversion to Jews Christians Islam or Parsi, been

Ans: B

83. __________ be pleaded in justification or by the way of excuse for the act or conduct complained of on the ground of cruelty.

A. Self defence but not provocation may

B. Provocation or self defence may

C. Self defence in case of provocation can

D. Provocation or self defence cannot

Ans: B

84. B is a trustee. He sold trust property worth Rs.85,000 for X 15,000 to D who purchased the same in good faith. After some time B purchased the property back from D at Rs.25, 000. Which of the following statements will be true?

A. The property in the hands of B is subject to the trust

B. The property in the hands of B is not subject to the trust because he purchased it from D who purchased and sold the same in good faith

C. The property in the hands of B is not subject to the trust because provisions of section 64 of the Act are attracted

D. The property in the hands of B is not subject to the trust because provisions of section 14 of the Act are attracted

Ans: A

85. Under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, the trustee can be discharged from his office ___________.

A. By the extinction of the trust, or completion of his duties

B. By reason of death of the remaining trustees

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B

Ans: A

86. A trust is extinguished_______.

A. When all the trustees die, and proper person is not available for appointment as trustee

B. When fulfilment of majority of its objective becomes impossible

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B

Ans: D

87. Which of the following statements hold true for chapter IX of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 only, and not for other chapters?

A. The provisions are not applicable on persons governed by Mahomedan law

B. The provisions are not applicable on persons governed by Hindu law

C. A person holding property under the provisions of the Chapter is entitled to a reasonable remuneration, if he uses the property for trade or business

D. None of these

Ans: C

88. Under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 ‘Breach of trust’ is defined as_______

A. A breach of any duty imposed on the trustee by the instrument of the trust

B. A breach of any duty imposed on a trustee, as such, by any law for the time being in force

C. A breach of any duty imposed on a trustee, as such, by the instrument of the trust, and by any law for the time being in force

D. A breach of any duty imposed on a trustee, as such, by provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882

Ans: B

89. Which is the only State in India to have the Common Civil Code:

(a) Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Goa

(d) Nagaland.

Ans. (b)

90. Gilt-edged market means:

(a) Bullion market

(b) Market of guns

(d) Market of government securities.

Ans. (d)

91. The study of the “law as it is” is:

(a) Censorial jurisprudence

(b) Expositorial jurisprudence

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (b)

92. What is true about India in respect of United Nations (UN):

(a) India is a member of UN since its inception in 1945 but not permanent member of its Security Council (UNSC)

(b) India is not a member of UN or its Security Council

(d) India is seeking for membership of UN.

Ans. (a)

93. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the united Nations:

(a) General Assembly

(b) Security Council

(d) World Trade Organisation.

Ans. (d)

94. Ulpain the legendary Roman Jurist defined jurisprudence as:

(a) Commands of state

(b) The science of just and unjust

(d) Both (a) and (c).

Ans. (d)

95. Rohini Satellites Series 1 (RS 1) which was launched in July, 1980 was launched by:

(a) SLV-1

(b) SLV-2

(d) PSLV.

Ans. (c)

96. The maximum duration of the zero hour in Lok Sabha can be:

(a) 30 minutes

(b) one hour

(d) unspecified.

Ans. (d)

97. Who is considered as the Father of Cloning:

(a) Ian Mendel

(b) Ian Wilmutt

(d) Ian W.S. Foster.

Ans. (b)

98. What is the approximate mean velocity with which the Earth moves around the Sun in its orbit:

(a) 15 km/s

(b) 30 km/s

(d) 75 km/s.

Ans. (b)

99. In a dry cell battery, which of the following are used as electrolytes:

(a) Ammonium Chloride and Zinc Chloride

(b) Sodium Chloride and Calcium Chloride

(d) Ammonium Chloride and Calcium Chloride

Ans. (a)

100. Seats are allocated to the various States in Lok Sabha on the basis of:

(a) their population

(b) their size and resources

(d) none of above.

Ans. (a)

101. The 42nd Amendment raised the term of Lok Sabha to:

(a) five years

(b) seven years

(d) nine years.

Ans. (c)

102. Which assembly is presided over by a non-Member:

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) Lok Sabha

(d) all of the above.

Ans. (a)

103. The power under Order XXXVII, Rule 4 of CPC is:

(a) confined to setting aside the ex-parte decree

(b) not confined to setting aside the ex-parte decree and extends to staying or setting aside the execution but not to giving leave to appear and defend the suit

(c) not confined to setting aside the ex-parte decree, and extends to staying or setting aside the exemption and giving leave to appear and defend the suit

(d) confined to staying or setting aside the exemption.

Ans. (c)

Judicial Services, Odisha, Interview Questions and Answers for OJS Examination

Cookie	Duration	Description
cookielawinfo-checkbox-analytics	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Analytics".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-functional	11 months	The cookie is set by GDPR cookie consent to record the user consent for the cookies in the category "Functional".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-necessary	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookies is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Necessary".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-others	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Other.
cookielawinfo-checkbox-performance	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Performance".
viewed_cookie_policy	11 months	The cookie is set by the GDPR Cookie Consent plugin and is used to store whether or not user has consented to the use of cookies. It does not store any personal data.

Judicial Services India