Odisha Judicial Service Exam Questions and Answers !
1. Which of the can be prosecuted for offence where mens rea is requisite?
A. juristic
B. artificial person
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
2. Which of the following is correct meaning of the phase ‘animus deserendi’?
A. Fact of separation
B. The intention of separating temporarily
C. The intention to bring cohabitation permanently to end
D. The fact that one person has brought cohabitation permanently to end
Ans: C
3. For proving desertion under section 13 clause (ib) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, one of the essential condition so far as the deserted spouse is concerned is _______.
A. Presence of consent
B. Absence of consent
C. Absence of conduct giving unreasonable cause to spouse to desert
D. Presence of conduct which is unhealthy in itself
Ans: B
4. Desertion under section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is an activity or course of conduct for the statutory period ______of the petition.
A. Which need not persist, but must be present on the date of presentation
B. Which must persist, but need not be present upto the presentation
C. Which must persist, upto the presentation
D. Which need not persist, and need not be present upto the presentation
Ans: C
5. Conducts which_____________ short of legal cruelty may justify one spouse in leaving another, ____________ of a grave and convincing character.
A. Does not fall, even if it is not
B. Does not fall, provided it is not
C. Falls, even if it is not
D. Fall, provided it is
Ans: D
6. Which of the following guidelines have been laid down by the Supreme Court for the recording of confession under TADAA?
I. the confession should be recorded in a free atmosphere in the same language in which the person is examined and as narrated by him
II. the person from whom confession has been recorded under Section 15 (1) of the TADA Act should be produced before the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or the Chief Judicial Magistrate to whom the confession is required to be sent under Rule 15 (5) along with the original statement of confession
III. the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate of the Chief Judicial Magistrate should scrupulously record the statement, if any, made by the accused so produced and get his signature or in case of any complaint of torture, the person should be directed to be produced for medical examination before a Medical Officer not lower in the rank than that of an Assistant Civil surgeon
IV. notwithstanding anything contained in the Cr. PC, no Police Officer below the rank of an Assistant Commissioner of police or a police officer or equivalent rank, should investigate any offence punishable under TADA Act
V. The Police Officer, if he is seeking the custody of any person for pre- indictment or pre – trial interrogation from the judicial custody, must file an affidavit sworn by him explaining the reason not only such custody but also for the delay
VI. in case the person taken for interrogation, on receipt of the statutory warning that he is not bound to make a confession and that, if he does so, the said statement may be used against him as evidence, asserts his right to silence, the Police Officer must respect his right of assertion
A. I, II and III
B. III and IV
C. II, V and VI
D. all of them
Ans. D
7. Which of the following is the lex fori which governs the Courts?
A. Indian Penal Code
B. Law of Evidence
C. both (A) and (B)
D. all of them
Ans. B
8. Under which of the following circumstances can a trust be revoked under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. At the pleasure of the author, in case of non- testamentary trust
B. By consent of all the beneficiaries, in case they are competent to contract
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
9. A trustee cannot be discharged from his responsibilities under section 72 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, unless ___________.
A. There is sufficient reason and the trust deed provides for the same
B. There is sufficient reason and all the beneficiaries agree to the same
C. There is sufficient reason and a proper person can be found to replace him
D. None of these
Ans: D
10. Which of the following remedies are available upon the breach of obligations by a party to the contract?
A. Damages
B. Specific Performance
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
11. Which of the following principles does not normally allow the Court to enforce the performance of a contract which requires involves continuous act?
A. It is not the duty of the Court of giving effect to the terms of contract
B. The Court fees are very high for the purpose of giving effect to the terms of contract
C. The Court cannot stop its normal functions for the purpose of giving effect to the terms of contract which cannot be conveniently supervised or enforced by the Court itself
D. None of these
Ans: C
12. Which of the following presumptions are raised by s. 10, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. That compensation would not be adequate in the case of transfer of immovable property
B. That it would be adequate in case of breach of transfer of movable property
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
13. Which of the following sections of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 confer power to the trustee for varying investment?
A. Section 40
B. Section 53
C. Section 43
D. Section 37
Ans: A
14. Which of the following is true of judgment under Section 41, Indian Evidence Act?
A. it speaks about a judgment which will become applicable only when a final judgment is rendered
B. rendition of a final judgment which would be binding on the whole world being conclusive in nature, shall take a long time
C. as and when a judgment is rendered in one proceeding, subject to the admissibility thereof keeping in view Section 43 of the Indian Evidence Act, it may be produced in another proceeding
D. all of them
Ans. D
15. Which of the following can be considered as third demand for the right of pre-emption?
A. Institution of the suit for pre-emption
B. Talab-i-ishhad
C. Talab-i-mowasibat
D. None of these
Ans: A
16. Which of the following statements is true regarding a suit for restitution of conjugal rights under Mahomedan law?
A. Husband can bring the suit
B. Wife can bring the suit
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: A
17. In case of irregular marriage_______________.
A. Specified dower or proper dower whichever is less, is payable in case of penetration
B. Specified dower is payable in case of penetration
C. Proper dower is payable, whether penetration has happened or not
D. Specified dower is payable whether penetration has happened of not
Ans: A
18. Which of the following is true of Section 88, Indian Evidence Act?
A. this section enables the Court to accept the hearsay statement as evidence of the identity of the message delivered with that handed in
B. the presumption under this section is available only if it is proved that the message has been delivered to that person to whom the message is addressed
C. the presumption under this section is only with reference to the message that his transmitted to the addressee from the telegraph office
D. all of them
Ans. D
19. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act applies only to public documents falling under Section 74, Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 56
B. Section 66
C. Section 76
D. Section 86
Ans. C
20. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals only with order in which the proceedings of the Court are to be conducted?
A. Section 129
B. Section 132
C. Section 138
D. all of them
Ans. C
21. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given?
A. Section 60
B. Section 55
C. Section 42
D. Section 65
Ans. D
22. The expression ‘adjustment’ in O.21, r 2 does not include:
A. The creation or addition of a new a decree, by including something new which is not included in the original claim
B. A stipulation for interest for a period subsequent to the date of the decree
C. either (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
23. A, claiming to be the chela and heir of a deceased mohunt sues B for rent of certain lands forming part of the estate of the mohunt. C claims that he, and not A, is the chela and heir of the deceased and that he is entitled to the rent. C is thereupon jointed as a defendant to the suit.
The issues raised are- Whether A or C is the chela and heir of the mohunt? Whether any and if so what rent is due from B? The Court finds that A is the chela and heir of the mohunt. It also finds Rs 2,500 due by B for rent, and A’s claim is decreed. Subsequently, C sues A for a declaration that he is the chela and heir of the mohunt and claims that as such he is entitled to the whole of the property left by the mohunt. A contends that the question, who is the chela and heir of the deceased, is res judicata.
A. Both the suits was for rent it will be decided against C
B. The former suit was for rent, the entire question of the title to the property of the deceased was not directly and substantially in issue in that suit and it will be decided against C
C. The former suit was for rent, the entire question of the title to the property of the deceased was directly and substantially in issue in that suit and it will be decided against C
D. None of these
Ans. C
24. A agrees to advance Rs 5,000 to B on a mortgage of B’s property. B advances Rs 3,000 only. C, who holds a decree against B, seeks to attach the balance, of Rs 2,000 payable by A to B as a debt due by A to B.
A. C cannot attach the balance, for it is not a debt due by A to B
B. C can attach the balance, for it is a debt due by A to B
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. A
25. Several creditors, to each of whom separate debts were owing by the same debtor, jointly sued the debtor to avoid a deed of gift executed by the debtor in favour of his daughter, on the ground that it was made fraudulently with the intent to defeat their claims.
A. They could not join as plaintiffs in one suit on the ground that the causes of action were separate and distinct
B. Such a suit could now be properly brought by one or more creditors on behalf of themselves and others under O. 1, r. 8
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
26. A sues B for specific performance of a contract to sell land and obtain a decree directing B to execute the conveyance and the conveyance is executed. On the basis of the self-same contract he, thereafter, sues B for possession of the land.
A. The second suit is barred under O 2, r 2
B. If the contract for sale did not provide for a being out in possession by B, it could not be barred
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
27. A dies intestate and in debt to B. C takes out administration to A’s effect and B buys part of the effects from C. In a suit for the purchase-money by C against B the latter cannot set-off the debt against the price for:
A. C fills the character of a vendor to B in which he sues B
B. C fills the character of a representative to A
C. both (A) and (C)
D. None of these
Ans. C
28. A sues B to establish his right to the office of mahant. A dies before the decree.
A. The suit abates, for the right claimed is a personal right to an office
B. The suit increases, for the right claimed is a personal right to an office
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
29. In a suit, A mortgages certain property to B which was then in possession of X, and agrees to deliver possession thereof B after recovering possession thereof from X. A recovers possession of the property from X, but does not deliver possession thereof to B. B sues A for possession, and a decree for costs, B applies for attachment and sale of the mortgaged property. Is B entitled to the order applied for attachment and sale of the mortgaged property?
A. Yes, for the claim in respect of costs is not a ‘claim arising under the mortgage’ within the meaning of O. 34, r 14. It arises under the decree passed for costs
B. No, for the claim in respect of costs is a ‘claim arising under the mortgage’ within the meaning of O. 34, r 14. It arises under the decree passed for costs
C. No, for the claim in respect of costs is a ‘claim arising under the mortgage’ within the meaning of O. 34, r 14. It does not arise under the decree passed for costs
D. None of these
Ans. A
30. Which of the following deals with summons to defendants in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 27
B. Section 20
C. Section 22
D. Section 25
Ans. A
31. Which of the following deals with partition of estate or separation of share in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 43
B. Section 50
C. Section 59
D. Section 54
Ans. D
32. Which of the following deals with definitions of “foreign State” and “Ruler” in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 90C
C. Section 92A
D. Section 87A
Ans. D
33. Which of the following deals with review in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 114
B. Section 103
C. Section 108
D. Section 100
Ans. A
34. Which of the following rights is considered as the ‘soul of fundamental rights’?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to constitutional remedies
D. Right against exploitation
Ans. C
35. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs according to Right to Constitutional Remedies. Which of the following writs can be issued by the Supreme Court for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Quo Warranto
D. All of them
Ans. D
36. In which of the following situation the Supreme Court will not interfere under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
A. No question other than relating to a fundamental right will be determined in a proceeding under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
B. If the validity of other provisions of the statute is challenged on the grounds other than the contravention of fundamental rights, the court would not entertain that challenge in a proceeding under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
C. The court will not interfere with the finding of fact where it was based on just and reasonable satisfaction and was not perverse
D. All of them
Ans. D
37. Which of the following statements regarding ‘What the Supreme Court cannot do under Article 32’ of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. The Supreme Court will not give a declaration which will not serve any useful purpose to the petitioner.
II. The Supreme Court will not issue damages which are available only in a suit.
III. In the absence of adequate materials, the Court would not enter into a political arena which should be properly dealt with by the Government.
A. All are incorrect
B. All are correct
C. I and III
D. II and III
Ans. B
38. ‘Power of Parliament to modify the rights conferred by this part in their application to forces etc.’ is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 32
B. Article 33
C. Article 33(1)
D. Article 32(1)
Ans. B
39. Article 36 of the Indian Constitution says “In part IV, unless the context otherwise requires, ‘the State’ has the same meaning as in Part III”. Which of the following statements regarding the definition of ‘the State’ is/are found to be correct?
I. Since this Article adopts the definition of ‘state’ in Article 12, of the Indian Constitution it would include courts and statutory tribunals, so that they cannot overlook the objectives of the Directives.
II. Any statutory corporation which answers the tests of a state instrumentality or agency even though it may not be a ‘public utility undertaking’ is bound to act in consonance with the Directive Principles.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
40. In which of the following respects the Directives differ from the Fundamental Rights?
A. The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favour of individuals
B. The Directives require to be implemented by legislation, and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal right under the colour of following a Directive
C. The Courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directive or to make any law for that purpose
D. All of them
Ans. D
41. Which of the following conditions mention in Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963 are necessary for the application of Section 15(4) of the same Act?
A. Good faith
B. Due negligence
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (D)
42. The word ‘proceeding’ in Section 15(4), Limitation Act, 1963 includes which of the following?
A. Suit
B. Application
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
43. Nothing in sub-section (1) or (2) of Section 16, Limitation Act, 1963 applies to which of the following?
A. Suits to enforce rights of pre-emption
B. Suits for the possession of immovable property or
C. Suits of a hereditary office
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
44. Which of the following is true of Section 16, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. The section is based on the principle that where there is no person who could sue or be sued the statute of limitation would not run
B. It provides that subject to the exceptions mentioned in sub-section(3) where a cause of action accrues in favour of or against the estate of a deceased person, the starting of the limitation will be postponed till the emergency of someone who can sue or be sued on behalf of the estate, as the case may be
C. The section does not however say that in case there was a legal representative before the cause of action arises he can institute the suit even before the time the cause of action would have arisen to the deceased if he had not died
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
45. In view Section 16(3), Section 16(1) does not apply to which of the following?
A. Suits of movable property
B. Suits of immovable property
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
46. A dies surviving him are his widows W and W1, his mother M, two sons S and S1 and two daughter’s D and D1. What will be the share of W1?
A. 1/12th
B. 1/6th
C. 1/4th
D. 1/7th
Ans. A
47. Which of the following section of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deals with “Order of succession among agnates and cognates “?
A. Section 10
B. Section 11
C. Section 12
D. Section 13
Ans. C
48. In which of the following cases did Supreme Court pointed out that “the estate of taken by a female Hindu under Section 14 sub section(1) is an absolute one, and is not defeasible and its ambit cannot be cut down by any text or rule of Hindu Law or by any presumption or any fiction under that law “?
A. Dado v. Raghunath
B. Bhuri Bai v. Champa Bai
C. Vidya v. Nand Ram
D. Punithavali v. Ramalingam
Ans. D
49. Which of the following statements are true for Section 14 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
I. This section validates illegal possession of a female Hindu under certain cases
II. The word ‘Wife’ can be used synonymously for ‘Female Hindu’ under this Act
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. D
50. Which of the following sections deals with “General rules of succession in the case of female Hindus “?
A. Section 13
B. Section 14
C. Section 15
D. Section 16
Ans. C
51. Which of the following sections deal with “Presumptions in case of simultaneous deaths “?
A. Section 20
B. Section 21
C. Section 22
D. Section 23
Ans. B
52. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 enables the plaintiff to seek compensation in a suit for specific performance?
A. s. 21
B. s. 19
C. s. 17
D. None of these
Ans. A
53. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 bars another suit for compensation after dismissal of the suit for specific performance?
A. s. 22
B. s. 23
C. s. 24
D. None of these
Ans. C
54. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that the mere fact of liquidation of damages does not bar the relief?
A. s. 21
B. s. 23
C. s. 25
D. None of these
Ans. B
55. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 gives the power to award in the same suit, other reliefs like possession, partition or refund of earnest money?
A. s. 19
B. s. 22
C. s. 23
D. None of these
Ans. B
56. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 makes applicable ss. 9-17, 20-24 of the same Act to awards and testamentary directions to execute settlements?
A. s. 23
B. s. 24
C. s. 25
D. None of these
Ans. C
57. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with building contracts which can be specifically enforced?
A. s. 13, sub-section (2) (b)
B. s. 14, sub-section (3) (c)
C. s. 15, sub-section (4) (d)
D. None of these
Ans. B
58. If a pauper suit abates on the death of the plaintiff, under Order XXXIII, Rule 11A of CPC, the fee payable on the plaint shall be recoverable from:
(a) the defendant
(b) the estate of the deceased plaintiff
(c) the public exchequer
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (b)
59. Rejection of an application for permission to sue as a pauper:
(a) bars a fresh application on the same cause of action
(b) does not bar a fresh application as the same cause of action if moved along with amended schedule of property
(c) does not bar a fresh application on the same cause of action with the leave of the court
(d) does not bar a fresh application at all.
Ans. (a)
60. In case the application for permission to sue as pauper is allowed, the suit is deemed to have been instituted:
(a) on the date of presentation of the application for permission to sue as a pauper
(b) on the date on which the permission to sue as pauper granted
(c) either (a) or (b) as directed by the court
(d) only (b) & not (a).
Ans. (a)
61. In case the application for permission to sue as pauper is rejected, the suit is deemed to have been instituted, under Order XXXIII, Rule 15A of CPC:
(a) on the date on which the permission to sue as pauper refused
(b) on the date on which the court fee is paid
(c) on the date on which the application for permission to sue as pauper was presented
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c) as directed by the court.
Ans. (c)
62. Permission under Order XXXIII of CPC can be granted:
(a) to sue
(b) to plead a set-off
(c) to plead a counter-claim
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
63. Summary procedure in relation to suits has been provided:
(a) under Order XXXV of CPC
(b) under Order XXXVII of CPC
(c) under Order XXXVIII of CPC
(d) under Order XLIV of CPC.
Ans. (b)
64. A suit under Order XXXVII can be filed in:
(a) Courts of Small Causes
(b) City Civil Courts
(c) High Courts
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
65. A suit under Order XXXVII can be filed on the basis of:
(a) bills of exchange
(b) hundies
(c) promissory notes
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
66. Which of the following is a continuing body:
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Legislative Council
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (c)
67. Which one of the following duties of Chief Minister in relation to the Governor is not correct:
(a) He communicates to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers
(b) He supplies the Governor with information on such matters relating to the administration of the State as he may call for
(c) He assists the Governor in making appointment to the State Government
(d) He advises the Governor to recommend the President that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Ans. (d)
68. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has to address his letter of resignation to the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) Vice-President of India.
Ans. (b)
69 Give correct response regarding the procedure of passing of bills in Parliament:
(a) A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse because of the prorogation of two Houses of the Parliament
(b) A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha shall lapse on its dissolution
(c) A Bill pending in Lok Sabha and pending in Rajya Sabha shall not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha
(d) A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has been passed by Lok Sabha shall lapse on the adjournment of Rajya Sabha.
Ans. (a)
70. Assertion (A): The President is a part of Parliament.
Reason (R): A Bill passed by two Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President:
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
71. The quorum to hold a meeting of the House of State Legislature shall be:
(a) 30 members or 1/10th of total membership, whichever is less
(b) one half of the total membership of the House
(c) 1/10th of total membership of the House
(d) 10 members or 1/10th of total membership, whichever is more.
Ans. (d)
72. Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) provides services for:
(i) Telecommunications
(ii) Television broadcasting
(iii) Radio broadcasting
(iv) Meteorology
(a) only (i) and (ii)
(b) only (ii) and (iii)
(c) only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Ans. (d)
73. Which of the following was the first satellite of India:
(a) Apple (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment)
(b) Aryabhatta
(c) Rohini
(d) Bhaskara.
Ans. (b)
74. In which year India’s first satellite launched:
(a) 1978
(b) 1976
(c) 1975
(d) 1974.
Ans. (c)
75. The most important instrument of legal reform is:
(a) Legislation
(b) Custom
(c) Precedent
(d) Writing of legal experts.
Ans. (a)
76. Which of the following are subordinate legislations:
(1) Parliamentary legislation
(2) Colonial legislation
(3) Judicial legislation
(4) Executive legislation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below –
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4.
Ans. (a)
77. Who among the following is the proponent of Analytical School of Jurisprudence:
(a) Bentham
(b) Austin
(c) H.L.A. Hart
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (c)
78. UN has:
(a) Six official languages
(b) Five official languages
(c) Ten official languages
(d) Eight official languages.
Ans. (a)
79. Which of the following nutrients help us to grow:
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Vitamins
(d) Fats.
Ans. (b)
80. Compact disc (CD) was invented by:
(a) Guttebburg
(b) Graham Bell
(c) Philips and Sony
(d) John Neuman.
Ans. (c)
81. Why is the offering of ‘Teaser Loans’ by commercial Banks a cause of economic concern:
I. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
II. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units
Codes:
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither is correct.
Ans. (a)
82. In which among the cases the Supreme Court held that Legislative power of a State or Union is subject to the fundamental rights and the legislature cannot indirectly take away or abridge fundamental rights which it could not do directly for granting either recognition or aid to minority institutions:
(a) TMA Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
(b) TMA Pai Foundation v. Union of India
(c) TMA Pai Foundation v. State of Rajasthan
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
83. Right to Education under Constitution of India falls under:
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Civil Rights
(d) Preamble of Constitution.
Ans. (b)
84. Consider the following statements:
1. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 represents the consequential legislation to Article 21A inserted in the Constitution of India.
2. RTE Act became operative with effect from 1st April, 2010
3. The Government had notified the RTE in the Official Gazette on 9th April, 2011.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
(a) Both 1 & 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans. (a)
85. India’s first Digi Dhan Mela was held in which State to promote cashless transactions:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Haryana
(d) Odisha.
Ans. (c)
86. Which Committee has submitted report on promoting digital payments to the Union Government:
(a) Ratan Watal Committee
(b) Vinod Rai Committee
(c) Rangarajan Committee
(d) Lodha Committtee.
Ans. (a)
87. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in of the Indian Constitution:
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV.
Ans. (d)
88. The McMahon line was determined in 1914 at a conference of the representatives of British India, Tibet and China held at:
(a) London
(b) Shimla
(c) Delhi
(d) Beijing.
Ans. (b)
89. Article 15 does not permit the State to make any special provision for one of the following. Which is that:
(a) Socially and educationally backward classes of citizen.
(b) Economically backward classes
(c) Scheduled Castes only
(d) Scheduled Tribes only.
Ans. (b)
90. Choose the right statement:
Every Chief Justice of the High Court shall be appointed by the President in:
(a) Consultation with C.J.I.
(b) Consultation with Governor and C.M.
(c) Consultation with C.J.I, and other Judge of High Court
(d) Consultation with C.J.I. and Governor.
Ans. (d)
91. Name the cricketer whose record of taking highest number of catches by a non-wicket keeper in test cricket was broken by Rahul Dravid in the series against New Zealand in 2009
A. Ricky Ponting
B. Mark Waugh
C. Jacques Kallis
D. Sanath Jayasurya
Ans: B
92. Who won the Women’s World Cup Cricket held in Australia in 2009?
A. South Africa
B. England
C. India
D. New Zealand
Ans: B
93. Taking gift to help to recover movable property of which a person has been deprived by an offence without causing apprehension of offender is dealt under
A. Section 215 of IPC
B. Section 216 of IPC
C. Section 217 of IPC
D. Section 218 of IPC
Ans: A
94. A, intending or knowing to be likely permanently disfigure Z’s face, gives Z a blow which does not permanently disfigures Z’s face, but which causes Z to suffer severe bodily pain for the space of twenty days.
A. A has committed an offence under Section 312, IPC
B. A has committed an offence under Section 318, IPC
C. A has committed an offence under Section 322, IPC
D. A has committed an offence under Section 324, IPC
Ans: C
95. A, a zamindar, tortures a raiyat in order to compel him to pay his rent.
A. A is guilty of an offence under Section 322, IPC
B. A is guilty of an offence under Section 328, IPC
C. A is guilty of an offence under Section 330, IPC
D. A is guilty of an offence under Section 334, IPC
Ans: C
96. Intentional omission to apprehend on the part of a public servant bound by law to apprehend person under sentence of a court of justice, if under sentence of imprisonment for less than 10 years or lawfully committed to custody is dealt under
A. Section 221 of IPC
B. Section 222 of IPC
C. Section 222 of IPC
D. Section 224 of IPC
Ans: C
97. Which one of the following States has started “Hooner”, a programme for Muslim girls?
A. Kashmir
B. Bihar
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Orissa
Ans: B
98. The judges of the High Court can be removed from their office before the expiry of their term on the grounds of proved misbehaviours or incapacity by the:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court
(c) President on the recommendations of the two Houses of the Parliament
(d) Both Houses of the Parliament with special majority
Ans. (c)
99. The trade agreement of 1954 which also included five principles of Panchsheel was signed between:
(a) India & Sri Lanka
(b) India & Bangladesh
(c) India & Pakistan
(d) India & China.
Ans. (d)
100. Which of the following statements about rural- urban distribution of population of the census 2011 is/are correct:
1. Child Sex Ratio is higher in rural areas than in urban areas
2. CSR in urban and rural areas is 902 and 919 respectively
3. Nagaland has the best CSR in urban areas while Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the best CSR in rural areas
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these.
Ans. (c)
101. The normal temperature of human body is:
(a) 98.4°F
(b) 98.6°F
(c) 98.8°F
(d) 96.6°F.
Ans. (b)
102. The largest cell in the human body is:
(a) Nerve cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Kidney cell.
Ans. (a)
103. The United Nations is the successor of:
(a) League of Nations
(b) European Unions
(c) European Communities
(d) International Court of Justice.
Ans. (a)
104. October 24 is observed as UN Day because:
(a) Charter of United Nations, 1945 came into force in this day
(b) Charter of United Nations, 1945 was signed on this day
(c) Statute of International Court of Justice, 1945 was established on this day
(d) Agreements for the Prosecution and Punishment of the Major War Criminals was made on this day.
Ans. (a)
105. According to Wurzel which of the following was the first of the social sciences to be born:
(a) Sociology
(b) Psychology
(c) Philosophy
(d) Jurisprudence.
Ans. (d)
106. A non-Money Bill passed by the Parliament is returned by the President to Parliament for reconsideration. It is passed once again by the Parliament without any change. Now the:
(a) President can again withhold his assent
(b) Bill will automatically lapse
(c) Bill will be referred to the Supreme Court
(d) President will give his assent.
Ans. (d)
107. The quorum requirement in Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 25
(b) 100
(c) 50
(d) 126.
Ans. (a)
108. A is married to W, A has a younger brother B who has two children C1 and C2. In case C1, B and Adie simultaneously deaths, what would be the assumed correct order of deaths under Section 21 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. C1-A-B
B. C1-B-A
C. A-B-C1
D. None of the above
Ans. C