Odisha Civil Judge: Question and Answers !
1. Under which of the following damages the Court may award more than normal measure of damages?
A. aggravated damages
B. exemplary damages
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
2. The doctrine of ‘territorial nexus’ means that:
(a) laws made by the State Legislature may have their application to the people of other States when there is direct relation between such laws and people of other States.
(b) the territory of every State is open to all citizens of India for the purpose of trade and commerce.
(c) the State Legislature is sovereign within its territory.
(d) laws made by sovereign State Legislature cannot be questioned on the ground of extraterritorial operation.
Ans. (a)
3. Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution provides for the declaration of:
(a) National emergency
(b) State emergency
(c) Financial emergency
(d) National, State and Financial emergency.
Ans. (d)
4. Who became the first Cabinet Minister to be convicted of murder:
(a) Navjot Singh Sidhu
(b) Shibu Soren
(c) Lalu Prasad
(d) Shahabuddin.
Ans. (b)
5. On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill, after passing by each House of Parliament, the President:
(a) shall give his assent
(b) may give his assent
(c) may withhold his assent
(d) may return the Bill for reconsideration
Ans. (a)
6. Right to appeal from every original decree has been provided under:
(a) section 94 of CPC
(b) section 95 of CPC
(c) section 96 of CPC
Ans. (c)
7. ‘Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under this Article’ was inserted in Article 368 by:
(a) Constitution [Twenty-fifth Amendment] Act
(b) Constitution [Forty-second Amendment] Act
(c) Constitution [Twenty-fourth Amendment] Act
(d) Constitution [Seventy-fifth Amendment] Act.
Ans. (c)
8. Under section 96 of CPC, no appeal can be filed:
(a) against a compromise decree
(b) against a decree in any suit cognizable by the courts of Small Causes, except on a question of law
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect.
9. An appeal from a decree passed in appeal has been provided:
(a) under section 97 of CPC
(b) under section 98 of CPC
(c) under section 99 of CPC
(d) under section 100 of CPC
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following deals with the application to orders in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 30
B. Section 20
C. Section 34
D. Section 36
Ans. (D)
11. Which of the deals with the publication of rules in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 122
B. Section 127
C. Section 124
D. Section 129
Ans. (B)
12. Which of the deals with particulars to be given where necessary in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 6, Rule 4
B. Order 9, Rule 12
C. Order 8, Rule 10
D. Order 10, Rule 22
Ans. (A)
13. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a President of India?
A. Article 51
B. Article 51A
C. Article 52
D. Article 53
Ans. C
14. Admission in pleading can be:
A. Actual, that is, those contained in the pleadings (O. 7, r 5) or in answer to interrogatories (O. 11, r 22)
B. Constructive, that is, those which are merely the consequence of the form of pleading adopted (O. 8, rr. 3, 4, 5)
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
15. Under section 96, an appeal can be preferred against a decree:
(a) by parties to the suit
(b) by strangers/third parties generally
(c) by the strangers to the suit with the leave of the court
(d) all the above.
16. Government Pleader includes:
A. Any officer appointed by the State Government to perform all
B. Any of the functions expressly imposed by this Code on the Government Pleader
C. Any pleader acting under the directions of the Government Pleader
D. All of these
Ans. D
17. If by subsequent event, the original proceeding becomes in fructuous, ex debito justitiae, it will be open to the parties concerned to make an application under which of the following section, to bring to notice of the Court the facts and circumstances which have made the pending litigation in fructuous?
A. Section 151, C.P.C
B. Section 152, C.P.C
C. Section 153, C.P.C
D. Section 154, C.P.C
Ans. A
18. In England evidence of facts or transmissions similar to the fact of transaction directly in issue is admissible if it is logically probative subject to which of the following exception?
A. of similar acts done by himself, if they do no more than show a general disposition, habit or propensity to commit such acts and a subsequent probability of his having committing the act, or processed the state of mind in question
B. of similar acts done by others, similarly circumstanced to himself, to show that he would be likely to act as they did
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
19. Under which Article the State of Uttaranchal has altered its name as Uttarakhand:
(a) Article 2
(b) Article 3(a)
(c) Article 1
(d) Article 3(e).
Ans. (d)
20. The word ‘person’ used in O. 33, r 1 includes:
A. A company
B. An official receiver
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
21. In which case it was held that Laws included in the Ninth Schedule do not become part of the Constitution:
(a) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
(b) Indira Gandhi case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
22. In which of the following sense the term “fact” can be used?
A. the information provided by the witness and other evidence
B. the conclusions drawn by the trier of fact from the information presented in Court as to what actually happened
C. the legal concepts, facts in issue, that must be established if a particular party to legal proceeding is to succeed
D. all of them
Ans. D
23. Which of the following deals with the effect of discontinuance of suit in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 5, Rule 30
B. Order 8, Rule 6D
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 10, Rule 22
Ans. (B)
24. Which of the following directions has/have been issued by the Supreme Court to the Central Government to take a number of steps to improve the environment?
A. To direct all educational institutions throughout Indian to give weekly lessons in the first ten classes, relating to the protecting and improvement of the natural
B. To get books written for the said purpose and to distribute them free of cost
C. To introduce short term courses for training up teachers who teach this subject
D. All of them
Ans. D
25. A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. It is proved that he was in possession of a particular stolen article. Applying Section 14, Indian Evidence Act, why, the fact that, at the same time, he was in possession of many other stolen articles is, relevant/irrelevant?
A. it is relevant as, it tends to show that he knew each and all of the articles of which he was in possession to be stolen
B. it is not relevant as, it does not tend to show that he knew each and all of the articles of which he was in possession to be stolen
C. it is relevant as, it tends to show that he knew who stole the goods
D. none of them
Ans. A
26. A sues B for rent due for the year 1902. The defence is that the land is rent-free. An issue is raised, ‘whether the land is rent-free’. The court finds that the land is rent-free, and A’s suit is dismissed. Subsequently, A sues B claiming rent for the year 1904. B again sets up the same defence, namely, that the land is rent-free.
A. Here, the question of A’s right to recover the rent having not been ‘directly and substantially’ in issue in the previous suit, a suit for the rent for 1904 is barred as res judicata
B. Here, the question of A’s right to recover the rent having been ‘directly and substantially’ in issue in the previous suit, a suit for the rent for 1904 cannot be barred as res judicata
C. Here, the question of A’s right to recover the rent having been ‘directly and substantially’ in issue in the previous suit, a suit for the rent for 1904 is barred as res judicata
D. None of these
Ans. C
27. The term ‘chargeable’ in the sub-section (2) of Section 20, Limitation Act, 1963 covers which of the following?
A. Personal liability
B. Liability in respect of property
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
28. Section 21, Limitation Act, 1963 corresponds to which of the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1908?
A. Section 20
B. Section 21
C. Section 22
D. Section 23
Ans. (C)
29. Under which of the following pawnee is not to retain for debt or promise other than that for which goods pledged in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 174
B. Section 171
C. Section 173
D. Section 178
Ans. (A)
30. What is the following words mean obstructed heritage?
A. Apratibandha daya
B. Sapratibandhya daya
C. Viramitro daya
D. Madana daya
Ans: A
31. The words ‘manager of the family of the time being’ in Section 20(3), Limitation Act, 1963 signifies which of the following?
A. That though a manager has implied authority to borrow on behalf of the family, he cannot make payment
B. He cannot keep a debt alive as against the family unless he is also the manager of the family at the time of making the payment
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
32. Unless the terms of the guarantee provide other, the surety is entitled to claim relief from the principal-debtor immediately:
A. as often as he pays anything under his guarantee as it falls due
B. and is not required to pay the whole debt due from the principal-debtor before compelling reimbursement
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
33. Usurious contract is:
A. Any bargain or contract whereby any man is obliged to pay more interest for than the Law allows
B. Any contract for payment of excessive interest
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
34. Which of the following section of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deal with “special provisions respecting persons governed by aliyasantana laws “?
A. Section 15
B. Section 16
C. Section 17
D. Section 18
Ans. C
35. Under which of the following the finder of thing commonly on sale may sell it in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 169
B. Section 159
C. Section 163
D. Section 169
Ans. (D)
36. In which of the following cases was it held that “A co-owner, in the context of section 19 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, has no authority to enlarge the period of limitation as against the other co-owners, by any acknowledgement of liability or payment of interest or principal”?
A. Parasuraman v. Purushothaman and Co.
B. Sarwan Singh v. Dhan Kaur
C. Balkrishana Kaimal v. Gopala Kaimal
D. Purshottam v. Shripad
Ans. A
37. The holder of life interest sold his interest to another, who also purchased the rights of revisioners by a separate transaction. It was held that s. 19 (c) did not apply nor s. 43 of the Transfer of Property Act because of which of the following reasons?
A. The life holder did not acquire full rights to be bound by s. 43, the revisioners were not parties to the contract to be bound by estoppel
B. The purchase of rights of revisioners was by separate transaction
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
38. The expression ‘has paid money’ used in s. 19, Specific Relief Act, 1963 means:
A. Payment of money’s worth
B. Agreement to pay money
C. Actual payment or money
D. both (A) and (c)
Ans. D
39. Which Of the following sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 states that the general provision relating to succession is that “full blood will be preferred to half-bloods”
A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Ans. A
40. Which of the following sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deal with “Right of a child in womb “?
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 19
D. Section 20
Ans. D
41. Which of the following sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deal with “mode of succession of two or more heirs”
A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Ans. B
42. The enforcement of restrictive covenants by way of injunction does not come with which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. s. 13, cl. (a), Specific Relief Act, 1963
B. s. 14, cl. (b), Specific Relief Act, 1963
C. s. 15, cl. (c), Specific Relief Act, 1963
D. None of these
Ans. C
43. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
A. Magistrate is competent to issue a warrant of arrest for production of a person before his own Court or before a police officer
B. A warrant once issued remains in force until it is cancelled or executed even though it bears a returnable date
C. The magistrate does not have a power to issue non-bailable warrants during an investigation
D. Police officer can delegate the execution of the warrant to civilians under certain circumstances
Ans. (B)
44. Under section 100 of CPC, second appeal lies to:
(a) the court of the District Judge
(b) the High Court
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (b)
45. Which of the following two are classes of property under Mitakshara School of Law?
I. Apratibandha daya
II. Sapratibandhya daya
III.Viramitro daya
IV. Madana daya
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Ill and IV
D. I and IV
Ans: A
46. Which of the following words means unobstructed heritage?
A. Apratibandha daya
B. Sapratibandhya daya
C. Viramitro daya
D. Madana daya
Ans: B
47. Which of the following statements are true regarding property under Hindu Law?
A. Joint Family Property and Coparcenary Property are separate terms
B. Self-acquired property cannot be considered separate property
C. Property jointly acquired by the members of a joint family, with the aid of ancestral property, is coparcenary property
D. None of above
Ans: C
48. Which of the following is right definition of Coparcenary Property?
A. Property in which every coparcener has a joint interest, and a joint procession
B. Property which is ancestral in nature, or separate property of coparceners thrown into common coparcenary stock
C. Property which is ancestral in nature or property acquired with help of ancestral property
D. Property in which every male coparcener has a joint interest and a joint procession, and in which every female coparcener has limited interest.
Ans: A
49. Which of the following statements will hold true in case paternity of the child is acknowledged?
A. It raises a presumption of valid marriage
B. It does not raise a presumption of valid marriage
C. The acknowledgement cannot be given for a girl child
D. All of these statements are false
Ans: A
50. Which of the following statements are true regarding heritage under Dayabhaga School?
A. Dayabhaga school divides heritage into three classes
B. Dayabhaga school does not recognise right of succession
C. Under Dayabhaga school not even son takes an interest by birth in the property of another
D. Dayabhaga school only recognises principal of survivorship
Ans: C
51. Which of the following statements is true regarding a person entitled to be guardian under Mahomedan law?
A. He must submit application for appointment as a guardian of minor person under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890
B. He must submit application for appointment as a guardian of minor’s property under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
52. Which of the following statements is true regarding application for appointment of a guardian under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890, as applicable for a Mahomedan person?
A. Only the person claiming to be guardian can file the application
B. Only the person desirous of being appointed as guardian can file the application
C. Either or both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
53. Under Shia law, what is the age at which the hizanat of a male child by his mother ends?
A. Two years
B. Seven years
C. Puberty
D. None of these
Ans: A
54. Under which of the following s.13, Specific Relief Act, 1963 cannot be invoked?
A. If defendant can set up jus rentii
B. To enforce an agreement to relinquish or release a spes successions
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
55. Under which of the following conditions the question of redirecting specific performance of a part of the contract arises?
A. When the part of the contract as on the date of the suit has become incapable of performance and a portion of it is left unperformed, which portion admits of compensation in money
B. When part of the contract as on the date of the suit has become incapable of performance and the whole of it is left unperformed, which portion admits of compensation in money
C. When the whole of the contract as on the date of the suit has become incapable of performance and a portion of it is left unperformed, which portion admits of compensation in money
D. None of these
Ans: C
56. Which of the following statements is true regarding guardianship under Mahomedan law as applicable in India?
A. Mahomedan law will supersede provisions of the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890, in cases of conflict between the two
B. The Guardian and Wards Act, 1890 will supersede provisions of the Mahomedan law, in cases of conflict between the two
C. The cases will be referred for arbitration, in cases of conflict between the Mahomedan law and the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890
D. None of these
Ans: B
57. Under which of the following conditions a contract is specifically enforceable under s. 23, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Where a contract provides for liquidated damages
B. Where it does not indicate the option that it is in the alternative
C. Where a default clause provided for cancellation, the clause being available to both the parties upon the other’s default
D. All of these
Ans: D
58. Which of the following clauses of s. 15, Specific Relief Act, 1963 enables reversioners to enforce specific performance of a contract made by their predecessors- in-title?
A. s. 15, cl. (d)
B. s. 15, cl. (e)
C. s. 15, cl. (f)
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
59. Which of the following circumstances under cl. (c) of s. 16, Specific Relief Act, 1963 disqualifies the plaintiff from specific performance?
A. Plaintiff incapable of performing
B. Plaintiff violates essential term
C. Plaintiff acts wilfully in fraud of contract or in variance with or subversion of the relation created by contract
D. All of these
Ans: D
60. In torts-
A. Injuria sine damno is actionable only in case there are actual damages
B. Damnum sine injuria is actionable only in case there is actual damage
C. Injuria sine damno is actionable even if there are no damages
D. Damnum sine injuria is actionable even if there are no damages
Ans: C
61. X was suspected of stealing a bottle of liquor from the Bar of Y’s company where he was employed. He was asked by two of the security guards to go to Y’s office. X assented and he was invited in the waiting room and the two guards remained somewhere in the neighbourhood. There is-
A. No case of false imprisonment because X was not aware of it
B. No case of false imprisonment as X was merely detained on grounds of reasonable suspicion
C. False imprisonment from the movement X assented to the guards
D. False imprisonment from the movement X entered the waiting room
Ans: C
62. Under which of the following an order for specific performance supersedes the conditions of the provisions of the contract?
A. Where an order for specific performance is a full order with consequential directions
B. Where an order for specific performance is a partial decree
C. Where an order for specific performance is an order with no limitation
D. None of these
Ans: A
63. Between ‘A’ and ‘B’ and a third person “C’ the tort of conspiracy is committed when:
A. ‘A’ willfully causes damage to ‘B’
B. ‘A’ and ‘B’ try to cause damage to ‘C’ but no damage is done to ‘C’
C. ‘A’ and ‘B’ willfully cause damage to ‘C’ and actual damage results there from
D. ‘A’ and ‘B’ plan to cause damage to ‘C’
Ans: C
64. One of the remedies for false imprisonment is:
A. Mandamus
B. Habeas Corpus
C. Quo Warranto
D. Ceriorari
Ans: B
65. The defendant wrongfully enclosed a part of the public footway on Hammersmith Bridge. Put seats in it for the use of spectators of a regatta on the river and charged for admission to the enclosure. The plaintiff insisted on passing along this part of the foot path and climbed over the fence of the enclosure without paying the charge. The defendant refused to let him go forward, but he was told that he might go back into the carriage way and cross the other side of the bridge if he wished. If the plaintiff declined to do so and remained in the enclosure for half and hour, then the:
A. Plaintiff was entitled to damage
B. Plaintiff committed civil trespass
C. Defendant committed false imprisonment
D. Defendant did not commit false imprisonment
Ans: D
66. In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to:
A. Obtain benefit for the combiners
B. Violate legal right of the victim
C. Protect the interest of the combiners
D. Cause damage to the victim
Ans: D
67. A debt due to a firm from a customer is the property of the firm within the meaning of which of the following orders of the CPC?
A. O. 21, R. 43
B. O. 21, R. 44
C. O. 21, R. 45
D. O. 21, R. 46
Ans: D
68. The word ‘otherwise’ in the expression ‘purchase or otherwise’ in section 14, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is to be read with which of the following with the term purchase?
A. resjudicata
B. actus curaie neminem gravabit
C. ejusdem generis
D. None of these
Ans: C
69. The term ‘partnership assets’ in section 14, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 must be deemed to include the goodwill of the business for which of the following reasons?
A. The plaintiff is entitled to a share in the goodwill
B. The plaintiff is entitled to a share in the actual assets of the business
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
70. Since the partnership property is as such the property of one partner as it is of his co-partner or co-partners, it cannot attract the operation of an offence of which of the following sections of the IPC?
A. Section 403
B. Section 404
C. Section 405
D. Section 406
Ans: D
71. In which of the following cases no criminal prosecution is sustainable by one partner against another?
A. For stealing
B. For embezzling or obtaining by false sentence
C. Misappropriating the property of the firm
D. All of these
Ans: D
72. A working partner who has not contributed anything to the partnership business is a ‘servant’ or ‘clerk’ within the meaning of which of the following sections of the IPC and be held guilty of either criminal misappropriation or breach of trust?
A. Section 405
B. Section 406
C. Section 407
D. Section 408
Ans: D
73. The last Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was arrested and deported to
A. Burma
B. Sikkim
C. Bhutan
D. Nepal
Ans: A
74. The person who was considered as “the philosopher of the Indian civil service”
A. Cornwallis
B. Fitzjames Stephen
C. Dalhousie
D. Bentick
Ans: B
75. Jeevan is a teenage entrepreneur, whose financial success makes him the sole source of economic support for his parents, who can no longer work. If a driver strikes and hits Jeevan, sending him to the hospital for a length recuperation, then what kind of claim would the parents seek against the driver?
A. Enticement
B. Alienation of affection
C. Intentional Iinfliction of emotional distress
D. Loss of consortium
Ans: D
76. ‘A’ gave some cash and cheques to his friend ‘B’ who was an employee of the State Bank of India, to deposit misappropriated the amount. If ‘A’, ‘B’ misappropriated the amount. If ‘A’ sues the Bank for damages, then the Bank is:
A. Liable to pay because it was the employer of ‘B’
B. Liable to pay because the employee did it during the business hours and while working as an employee
C. Not liable because while committing the fraud, he was not acting as the agent or employee of the Bank
D. Not liable because he turned out to be the friend of plaintiff’s husband
Ans: C
77. The Governor General who merged Punjab in the British Empire.
A. Lord Hardinge
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Canning
D. Lord Wellesley
Ans: B
78. Subsidiary Alliance was propagated by
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord Hastings
C. Lord Cornwallis
D. Lord Dalhousie
Ans: A
79. The Sanskrit poet called as the Indian Shakespeare?
A. Kalidasa
B. Tulsidas
C. Sudraka
D. Kautilya
Ans: A
80. The rifle introduced by the British before the revolt of 1857 pork fat was
A. Bullet
B. Enfield
C. Repulse
D. Automation
Ans: B
81. In British period the peasantry was ground down by the
A. Zamindar
B. Government
C. Moneylender
D. Merchant/middleman
Ans: A
82. Who was the President of Calcutta session of Congress in 1886?
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Badrudin Tyabji
D. Naoroji Furdoonji
Ans: B
83. Who has been regarded as the ‘heroine of Quit India Movement’?
A. Kamla Devi Chattopadhyay
B. SuchetaKriplani
C. Aruna Asaf Ali
D. Sarojini Naidu
Ans: C
84. Which of the following is not an island?
A. Rameshwaram
B. Shriharikota
C. New Moore
D. Uran
Ans: D
85. What is the name of the reservoir made by Tehri dam project?
A. Govind Sagar
B. Umed Sagar
C. Swami Ramthirth Sagar
D. Govind Ballabh Sagar
Ans: D
86. The highest waterfall in India is
A. Kalindi waterfall
B. Jog waterfall
C. Milky waterfall
D. Shimsha waterfall
Ans: B
87. Among the images constructed during the rule of the Cholas, the most famous are;
(a) Bronze image of Nataraja
(b) Images carved out of rocks
Ans. (a)
88. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha:
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
89. The library of Nalanda, known as Dharma Gunj or Dharmaganja means :
(a) Mountain of knowledge
(b) Mountain of truth
(c) Mountain of righteousness
(d) Reservoir of knowledge.
Ans. (d)
90. Who among the following political leaders was class-mate of Jawaharlal Nehru in Harrow School at London and then became Prime Minister of United Kingdom:
(a) Clement Atlee
(b) Elizabeth II
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) Tony Blair.
Ans. (c)
91. Which of the following islands is situated in Arabian Sea:
(a) Andaman Island
(b) Tokyo
(c) Lakshadweep Island
(d) Indira Point.
Ans. (c)
92. Which of the following cash crops has now become the Malaysian crop but was originally brought from Amazon basin:
(a) Rubber
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Sugarcane.
Ans. (a)
93. Oyster-farming is practised in:
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) China
(d) Japan.
Ans. (d)
94. The British Prime Minister during India’s independence was:
(a) Sir Winston Churchill
(b) Clement Atlee
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Sir Stafford Cripps.
Ans. (b)
95. Interim Government on the eve of Independence was headed by:
(a) Nehru
(b) Patel
(c) Ambedkar
(d) Jinnah.
Ans. (a)
96. On which among the following date, the Constitution of India was adopted:
(a) 24th October, 1945
(d) 26th January, 1950.
Ans. (b)
97. Which of the following provision of the Constitution came into force with immediate effect after its adoption on 26 November, 1949:
(a) Provision relating to Citizenship and Elections
(b) Provision relating to Parliament
(c) Provision relating to temporary and transitional feature
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
98. The National Anthem was adopted by Constituent Assembly on:
(a) 27 December, 1911
(b) 27 December, 1949
(c) 24 January, 1950
(d) 26 January, 1950
Ans. (c)
99. In which famous case, the Supreme Court said “the President means, for all practical purposes, the Prime Minister or Council of Ministers and his opinion, satisfaction or decision is constitutionally secured when Minister arrives at such opinion, satisfaction or decision”:
(a) Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
100. Both the President and the Governors in India have power to promulgate Ordinances. The statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t say
(d) Depends on circumstances.
Ans. (a)
101. Which among the following Articles of the Constitution of India specifies the Ordinance making power of President during the recess of Parliament:
(a) Article 243
(b) Article 113
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 253.
Ans. (c)
102. The President of India can nominate not more than two Anglo Indians to:
(a) Legislative Council
(b) Council of States
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) House of People.
Ans. (d)
103. INS-Tillanchang, indigenously designed and built, was commissioned into the Indian Navy was built by which of the following companies:
(a) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)
(b) Hindustan Shipyard
(c) Cochin Shipyard
(d) Karnataka Naval Shipyard.
Ans. (a)
104. Who assumed charge as the Chairman of National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):
(a) Nand Kumar Sai
(b) Sanjiv Singh
(c) Surendra Verma
(d) Ajay Tyagi.
Ans. (a)
105. Which State Government has set-up an online system called sex ratio monitoring dashboard as part of the “Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao” Scheme to monitor the sex ratio:
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat.
Ans. (a)
106. Who became the first female cricketer to be nominated for the BCCI Lifetime Achievement Award:
(a) Sharmila Chakraborty
(b) Shantha Rangaswamy
(c) Anjali Sharma
(d) Shobha Pandit.
Ans. (b)
107. What is the length of the coastline of the country:
(a) 6,514 Km
(b) 7,517 Km
(c) 5,898 Km
(d) 11,715 Km.
Ans. (b)
108. Why was Neelima Mishra in the news recently:
(a) IAS officer who has humiliated abroad
(b) Magsaysay awardee who was denied USA visa
(c) First lady Minister who was arrested
(d) First Indian lady athlete to qualify for London Olympics.
Ans. (b)
109. By adopting which of the following countries resolution the UN General Assembly approved the CTBT (Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty):
(a) Australia
(b) USA
(c) Britain
(d) France.
Ans. (b)
110. The General Assembly on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was replaced by the WTO in:
(a) 1995
(b) 1992
(c) 1999
(d) 1990.
Ans. (a)
111. Which of the following Indian states was originally known as the North East Frontier Agency (NEFA):
(a) Sikkim
(b) Tibet
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Assam.
Ans. (c)
112. In one of his speeches, Dr. Pranab Sen said that there is no firm indication of sustainable recovery of India’s economy. Who is Dr. Pranab Sen:
(a)He is Chief Statistician of India
(b) He is Chief Economist of RBI
(c) He is the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India
(d) He is the Foreign Secretary of India.
Ans. (a)
113. Who among the following is the Chairman of Tax Administration Reform Commission (TARC):
(a) Parthasarathy Shome
(b) C. Rangarajan
(c) D. Subbarao
(d) S. Mahalingam.
Ans. (a)
114. The inflation in percentage which regularly features in news papers on a weekly basis is based on:
(a) Wholesale Price Index
(b) Consumer Price Index
(c) Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
115. Who was the first woman President of UN General Assembly:
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(d) Subblakshmi.
Ans. (c)
116. The UN Charter was signed on 26 June, 1945, but it came into force from ……………………. which is also celebrated every year as the United Nations Day:
(a) November 20,1944
(b) October 24,1944
(c) October 24,1945
(d) January 1,1945.
Ans. (c)
117. It is said about this organisation that it ‘has a heart of gold, but limbs of clay’. Which organisation is this:
(a) United Nations
(b) Red Cross
(c) IMF
(d) OIC.
Ans. (a)
118. UN Charter begins by proclaiming:
(a) ‘We the People of United Nations’
(b) ‘We the States of UN’
(c) ‘We Sovereign States’
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
119. The total fertility rate means:
(a) number of live births in a family
(b) total number of children a woman has borne
(c) magnitude of family size
(d) total number of females in a family.
Ans. (b)
120._____________ wavelength of light is most effective in photosynthesis:
(a) Yellow
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Blue.
Ans. (d)
121. During night we should not sleep under a tree because at night the tree releases:
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Less oxygen
(d) More oxygen.
Ans. (b)
122. ‘Orology’ is:
(a) The study of flowers
(b) The study of rivers
(c) The study of mountains
(d) The study of eye sight.
Ans. (c)
123. Which of the following has provided the first set of transponders for the ‘Vidya Vahini’ programme, a distance education and learning project:
(a) INSAT-3B
(b) INSAT-3A
(c) INSAT -3C
(d) INSAT-2E.
Ans. (a)
124. The heart of INSAT’s weather monitoring payload is an instrument called:
(a) Transponders
(b) TDCC
(c) Satellite camera
(d) VHRR.
Ans. (d)
125. Very High Resolution Radiometer (VHRR) provided the INSAT system with the capabilities:
(i) water vapour channel
(ii) to estimate upper tropospheric winds (roughly 8 to 12 KM above the ground)
(iii)estimation of water vapour in the atmosphere at various heights
(iv) estimation of river water level.
(a) all of the above
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only.
Ans. (c)
126. According to Austin the law is a command of the:
(a) Sovereign
(b) Society
(c) Individual
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
127. Austin’s classification of law falls chiefly under two heads, namely:
(a) Laws of God and laws of nature
(b) Laws of God and human laws
(c) Good laws & bad laws
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
128. The President of India nominates the members of Rajya Sabha from amongst persons who:
(a) Have taken part in India’s freedom struggle
(b) Have retired from active politics
(c) Have rendered meritorious service to the country either in politics or military field
(d) Have distinguished themselves in fine arts, literature, social service etc.
Ans. (d)
129. At the time of India’s Independence, who was the Prime Minister of United Kingdom:
(a) Winston Churchil
(b) Clement Atlee
(c) Tony Blair
(d) Margaret Thatcher.
Ans. (b)
130. What is the local name of Mohanjo-daro:
(a) Mound of the Great
(b) Mound of the Living
(c) Mound of the Survivor
(d) Mound of the Dead.
Ans. (d)