Odisha Judicial Services (OJS) Exam Preliminary Questions (With Answers)!
1. Which treaty signaled the departure of the Gurkhas and the arrival of the British on the political canvas of Shimla Hill states?
A. Treaty of Sagauli
B. Treaty of Lahore
C. Treaty of Malaun
D. Treat of Ramgarh
Ans: A
2. Who among the following was returned unopposed to the first Lok Sabha?
A. Dr. Y.S Parmar
B. Anand Chand
C. Pt. Padam Dev
D. Joginder Sen
Ans: B
3. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that the mere fact of liquidation of damages does not bar the relief?
A. s. 21
B. s. 23
C. s. 25
D. None of these
Ans: B
4. Partnership is an alias for which of the following?
A. Persons
B. Partners
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
5. There are exceptional cases in which a man will be relieves of the consequences of an illegal contract into which he has entered – cases to which the maxim does not apply. Which of the following are they?
A. Where the illegal purpose has not yet been substantially carried into effect before it is sought to recover money paid or goods delivered in furtherance of it
B. Where the plaintiff is not pari delicto with the defendant
C. Where the plaintiff does not have to rely upon the illegality to make out his claim
D. All of these
Ans: D
6. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 makes applicable ss. 9-17, 20-24 of the same Act to awards and testamentary directions to execute settlements?
A. s. 23
B. s. 24
C. s. 25
D. None of these
Ans: C
7. In India which area is known as store house of coal?
A. Raniganj
B. Bokaro
C. Jharia
D. Talcher
Ans: A
8. Section 2(b) read with section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is intended to mean a continued participation of two or more persons in which of the following with the intention of sharing profits accruing from it?
A. Trade
B. Occupation
C. Profession
D. All of these
Ans: C
9. In case the business was shown to be run in the name of the four minors which of the following orders of the CPC is not applicable?
A. Order 27, Rule 10
B. Order 28, Rule 10
C. Order 29, Rule 10
D. Order 30, Rule 10
Ans: D
10. Mr. Vivek Kundra joined U.S. President Obama’s administration as
A. Federal Chief Health Officer
B. Federal Chief Information Officer
C. Chief of the Bureau of Budget
D. Member of Federal Power Commission
Ans: B
11. The underlying rationale for recovery under a warranty is –
A. Breach of duty of care
B. Caveat emptor
C. Breach of promise
D. Nulle pene sine lege
Ans: C
12. In a case of false imprisonment:
A. intention of the defendant is necessary to constitute the tort
B. the wrong could not be constituted without the knowledge of the person wronged
C. the wrong would be constituted even by the curtailment of partial liberty
D. the wrong could be constituted even without the knowledge of the person wronged
Ans: D
13. Which of the following is not an ingredient of an offence Section 118, IPC?
I. An existence of a design to commit an offence
II. The offence is punishable with death or imprisonment for life
III. There is voluntary concealment with knowledge of the said design
IV. The accused facilitated or committed the said offence
V. No hurt/injury was caused in pursuance/consequence of such abetment
A. I, III, V
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III, V
D. I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
14. The song Jana-gana-mana was first published under the title:
(a) Gana Gagrati
(b) Bharat Vidhata
(c) Jana Bodhini
(d) Lok Shakti.
Ans. (b)
15. Who popularized the famous slogan “Satyameva Jayate’’ (Truth alone will triumph):
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Ans. (c)
16. The largest river in Asia is:
(a) Yangtze
(b) Indus
(c) Rhine
(d) Ganga.
Ans. (a)
17. On which particular date the rate of rotation of the earth on its axis is highest:
(a) 3rd January
(b) 15th May
(c) 22nd December
(d) It never changes.
Ans. (d)
18. What does the rising of the evening star indicates:
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North Pole
(d) South Pole.
Ans. (b)
19. In which case, Supreme Court held that Parliament has no power to amend Fundamental Rights:
(a) Golaknath case
(b) Sajjan Singh case
(c) Sankari Prasad case
(d) Keshavananda Bharati case.
Ans. (a)
20. It is the Fundamental rights of the consumers to know whether the food products, cosmetics and drugs are of non-vegetarian or vegetarian origin, otherwise it will violate their fundamental rights under Articles 19(1)(a), 21 and 25 of the Constitution of India. This observation relates to:
(a) Ozair Husain v. Union of India
(b) Vikash Despandey v. Bar Council of India
(c) TMA Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
21. After 86th Amendment to the Constitution, Article 45 of the Constitution includes:
(a) Provision for the right to education of children
(b) Provision for early childhood care and protection against any offence
(c) Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
(d) Provision for children for care and education upto age of 18 years.
Ans. (c)
22. The Headquarters of UN is at:
(a) New York
(b) Hague
(c) London
(d) Vienna.
Ans. (a)
23. The Governing Treaty of UN is:
(a) UN Charter
(b) UN Code
(c) UN Council
(d) UN General Assembly.
Ans. (a)
24. Consider the following statements about World Trade Organizaiton:
1. It oversees financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level
2. It was set up as the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both land 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2.
Ans. (b)
25. Which country’s tourism has been declared as the “fastest growing industry”:
(a) Mauritius
(b) Hong-Kong
(c) India
(d) New Zealand
Ans. (c)
26. Which country has the largest “merchant shipping fleet” among the developing countries:
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Malaysia
(d) Sri Lanka.
Ans. (a)
27. The largest arms importer in the world is:
(a) Pakistan
(b) Israel
(c) North Korea
(d) India.
Ans. (a)
28. The McMahon line is the boundary line between:
(a) India & Pakistan
(b) India & Bangladesh
(c) India & China
(d) India & Sri Lanka.
Ans. (c)
29. Who has been appointed as the new Chief of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
(a) U.K. Sinha
(b) Ajay Tyagi
(c) Bipin Rawat
(d) Sandeep Jajodia.
Ans. (b)
30. The term ‘gene’ was coined by:
(a) Wilhelm Johannsen
(b) G. Mendel
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) D. Vries.
Ans. (a)
31. Who was the Chief Guest for the 2017 Republic Day of India:
(a) Mahammadin bin Zayad A1 Nahyan
(b) Mohammad bin Zayad A1 Nahyan
(c) Mohammad Zayed bin Sultan
(d) Zayed bin Sultan al-Nahyan.
Ans. (b)
32. Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in:
(a) approving a proclamation of emergency
(b) creation and abolition of States
(c) election of the Vice President
(d) authorising Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List.
Ans. (d)
33. Assertion (A): A Bill which contains a taxation clause besides clauses dealing with other matters may also be a Money Bill.
Reason (R): All Bills dealing with taxes are money bills:
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
34. Who has been appointed as the new Chief of Central Bureau Investigation (CBI):
(a) Alok Kumar Verma
(b) Ranjeet Sinha
(c) Ajay Tyagi
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
35. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
(a) David Syiemlieh
(b) Deepak Gupta
(c) Bhimsen Bassi
(d) Alok Sirohi.
Ans. (a)
36. In which year ISRO was formed:
(a) 1968
(b) 1969
(c) 1966
(d) 1971.
Ans. (b)
37. Proclamation of emergency under Article 352 when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by:
(a) Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must approve it within 30 days of its first sitting
(b) New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Constitution
(c) Lok Sabha in next Session after six months
(d) Rajya Sabha only.
Ans. (a)
38. Which one of the following decisions is responsible for the Parliament passing the Constitution (24th Amendment) Act, 1971:
(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(c) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(d) Minerva Mills v. UOI.
Ans. (b)
39. India’s first indigenously developed high thrust cryogenic rocket engine C25 has successfully ground tested by the ISRO for which rocket vehicle:
(a) GSLV Mark-Il
(b) GSLV Mark-Ill
(c) GSLV Mark-IV
(d) GSLV Mark-V.
Ans. (b)
40. “Resourcesat-2A” remote sensing satellite has been launched by which of the following launch vehicles:
(a) PSLV-C35
(b) PSLV-C36
(c) PSLV-C37
(d) PSLV-C38.
Ans. (b)
41. Which one among the following is a water soluble vitamin:
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin K.
Ans. (a)
42. What kind of tax is Value Added Tax:
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Optional
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (b)
43. Which one of the following is the correlative of immunity:
(a) No-right
(b) Duty
(c) Disability
(d) Subjection.
Ans. (c)
44. An INCORRECT example of corporation aggregate is the:
(a) President of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) University of Delhi
(d) Municipal Corporation of Jaipur.
Ans. (c)
45. Under Order XXXIII, Rule 9 of CPC, permission to sue as pauper can be withdrawn:
(a) if the plaintiff is guilty of vexatious or improper conduct in the course of the suit
(b) if the plaintiff has entered into an agreement with reference to subject-matter of the suit creating an interest in that person
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)
46. If a plaintiff succeeds in the suit permitted to be instituted as pauper, under Order XXXIII, Rule 10 of CPC, the fee payable on the plaint shall be recoverable from:
(a) the plaintiff
(b) the defendant
(c) any party ordered by the decree to pay the same
(d) only plaintiff & none else.
Ans. (c)
47. Which of the following does Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 follows?
A. Field’s Draft Code of New York
B. Field’s Draft Code of New Jersey
C. Field’s Draft Code of Netherland
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
48. Contract of novation is ______________
A. A new contract that is enforced alongside an existing one, usually retaining the same rights and liabilities, as when one partner in a partnership is replaced by another
B. A new contract that replaces an existing one, without retaining the same rights and liabilities, as when one partner in a partnership is replaced by another
C. A new contract that replaces an existing one, usually retaining the same rights and liabilities, as when one partner in a partnership is replaced by another
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
49. Contract note is ___________
A. A note issued by a broker to his constituent setting out the number of securities bought or sold in the market along with the rate and date of contract
B. A document issued by a broker setting out details of a recent transaction, such as buying or selling price, inclusion or exclusion of benefits (dividends),tax, fee and commission
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
50. A Hindu female died interstate during pendency of a partition suit of her parental property, not having left any children behind. Which of the following statements will apply to her husband?
A. Husband will be able to inherit the property by virtue of section 15 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if the pending case is decided in wife’s favour
B. As the properly is parental, on wife’s death it will dissolve on heirs of father or mother as the case may be and not on Husband
C. Husband will lose all rights to parental property
D. None of the above
Ans. (C)
51. A Hindu female W governed by marumakkattayam dies, surviving her father F, her Husband H and her mother’s brother MB. She inherited considerable property from her mother. Which of the following will be true?
A. Property inherited from her mother will devolve on F and MB
B. All the property will devolve on F and MB
C. Property inherited from her mother will devolve on F
D. All the property will devolve on F and H
Ans. (D)
52. Which of the following statements regarding clause C of Article 26 of the Indian Constitution i.e. Right to own property is/are found to be correct?
I. Under this clause every religious denomination has the right to own and acquire property belonging to a religious body but it does prevent such property from being acquired by authority of law or to be assessed to land revenue.
II. The right guaranteed by Article 26 C. cannot be claimed after the ownership of a religious denomination is otherwise validly terminated.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
53. The proviso of Section 50, Indian Evidence Act, does not include with which of the following?
A. Section 304-B, IPC
B. Section 303-B, IPC
C. Section 302-B, IPC
D. Section 301-B, IPC
Ans. A
54. The word ‘loss or damage’ may be:
A. harm to person
B. harm to property
C. injury to economic position
D. all of them
Ans. (D)
55. The word ‘shall’ found in S. 16(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, indicates:
A. That the presumption is mandatory and if the burden is not discharged, the presumption shall prevail
B. That the presumption is not mandatory and if the burden is not discharged, the presumption shall prevail
C. That the presumption is mandatory and if the burden is discharged, the presumption shall prevail
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
56. The word ‘signifies’ in the definition of S. 2 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 indicates:
A. That the offer must be communicated to the person to whom it is made
B. That the offer need not be communicated to the person to whom it is made
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
57. The words ‘act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code’ makes it necessary for the Court:
A. to decide a civil action, whether the alleged act of coercion is such as to amount to an offence
B. to abstain from a civil action, whether the alleged act of coercion is such as to amount to an offence
C. to decide a civil action, irrespective of the alleged act of coercion is such as to amount to an offence
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
58. Time and place for performance of promise, where time is specified and no application to be made in which of the following in the Indian Contract Act, 1872
A. Section 42
B. Section 36
C. Section 47
D. Section 40
Ans. (C)
59. Time for performance of promise, where no application is to be made and no time is specified in which of the following of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 42
B. Section 46
C. Section 43
D. Section 40
Ans. (B)
60. Which of the following is true of Section 15, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. Its object is to safeguard a person who is precluded by an injunction or order of Court from exercising a right of suit or execution of any decree passed in his favour, against his being injured or damnified on that account
B. The protection afforded by the section is unqualified and its provisions do not appertain to pending proceedings only
C. It is based on the principle that an act of Court shall prejudice no man
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
61. Section 15(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963 makes provision for exclusion of time where the institution has been stayed by which of the following?
A. An order of injunction
B. An order of the Court
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
62. Where a scheme is stayed by Court, which of the following days must be counted while computing limitation?
A. Date of grant
B. Date of vacation
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
63. Section 15(1), Limitation Act, 1963 can only be agitated by which of the following
A. inter partes
B. Operations of judgments in rem
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans. (A)
64. Which of the following is true of the period of exclusion under Section 15(1)?
A. It starts from the day on which the injunction or order staying the execution is issued
B. It continues till the day of its withdrawal
C. both (A) and (B)
Ans. (C)
65. Which of the following conditions must be met for the application of Section 15(4), Limitation Act, 1963?
A. The suit should be one for possession by a purchaser at a sale in execution of decree
B. It should be a suit and not an application
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
66. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that the purchase or the lessee may seek specific performance against such a person with no title or with imperfect title in certain cases?
A. s. 12
B. s. 13
C. s. 10
D. None of these
Ans. B
67. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides details regarding eligibility to seek specific performance?
A. s. 10
B. s. 15
C. s. 20
D. None of these
Ans. B
68. Which of the following statements holds true regarding daughters for the purpose of Section 8 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. Daughter holds her share as woman’s share and not absolutely
B. Unchastity of a daughter is valid ground for her exclusion in succession
C. Unmarried daughter will have priority over married daughter in succession
D. Wife and daughters of a male Hindu would get an equal share in the property of a Hindu male dying interstate
Ans. D
69. Which of the following sections deals with “Distribution of property among heirs in Class 1 of the schedule under The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. Section 9
B. Section 10
C. Section (10)A
D. Section 11
Ans. B
70. A dies surviving him are his father and son’s daughter’s son. What would be the share of son’s daughter’s son as per Section 9 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. He will get half the property
B. All property will transfer to him
C. He will not get any share
D. None of the above
Ans. C
71. A dies surviving him are his Brother’s son, son of his sister and daughter of his sister. What will be the share of daughter of his sister as per The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. 1/3rd
B. 1/6th
C. 1/4th
D. None of the above
Ans. A
72. The property and income of a state is exempted from __________
B. Excise taxation
C. Progressive taxation
D. All of them
Ans. (A)
73. All contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union are expressed to be made by the ___________
A. Governor
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Chief Justice
Ans. (B)
74. The numbers of members of Anglo-Indian community nominated by the President in the House of the people are __________
A. 12
B.2
C. 6
D. 4
Ans. (B)
75. In a case involving B, B filed a petition for special leave under article 136 of the Constitution against an order of the lower courts. The Supreme Court rejected the petition without specifying any reason thereto. The rejection of the special leave will:
A. Act as res judicata against all other remedies available to B both under lower courts and under the Constitution
B. Not act as res judicata against other remedies available to B as the Supreme Court has not declared any ‘Law’
C. Act as res judicata against all other remedies available to B under lower courts, but not against the remedies available under the Constitution
D. Not act as res judicata against other remedies available to B as the Supreme Court has not declared any ‘Law’. But the rejection will act as res judicta for the purpose of subsequent petitions for special leave
Ans. (D)
76. Who among the following is the competent authority for issuing directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union?
C. Comptroller and Auditor General
D. Prime Minister
Ans. (B)
77. Which of the following deals with the property liable to attachment and sale in execution of decree in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 43
B. Section 60
C. Section 59
D. Section 54
Ans. (B)
78. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides for the persons against whom the specific performance can be claimed?
A. s. 17
B. s. 16
C. s. 19
D. None of these
Ans. C
79. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lays down grounds on which the relief may be refused to the plaintiff on account of his conduct?
A. s. 16
B. s. 15
C. s. 14
D. None of these
Ans. A
80. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 directs the circumstances in which the discretion may or may not be e directs the circumstances in which the discretion may or may not be exercised in granting the relief?
A. s. 19
B. s. 20
C. s. 21
D. None of these
Ans. B
81. The question is, whether A has a right to a fishery. Applying Section 13, Indian Evidence Act which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. A deed conferring the fishery A’s ancestors, a mortgage of the fishery by A’s father
B. a subsequent grant of the fishery by A’s father, irreconcilable with the mortgage, particular instances in which A’s father exercised the right, or in which A’s father exercised the right, or in which the exercise of the right was stopped by A’s neighbours
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
82. Under Section 63, Indian Evidence Act, secondary evidence includes:
I. certified copies
II. copies made from the original by mechanical processes, and copies compared with such copies
III. copies made from or compared with the original
IV. counterparts of documents, as against the parties who did not execute them
V. oral accounts of the contents of a document by a person who has seen it
A. I, III and IV
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and V
D. all of them
Ans. D
83. Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following types of conduct would be material?
A. change of life
B. evasion of justice
C. fear, trembling
D. all of them
Ans. D
84. Upon which of the following maxim proviso (5) of Section 92, Indian Evidence Act is based?
A. consuetude loci est observanda
B. Magister rerum uses
C. Optimus interpres rerum usus
D. all of them
Ans. D
85. The question is, whether a certain document is the will of A. Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. the facts that, not long before the date of the alleged will, A made inquiry into matters to which the provisions of the alleged will relate
B. A consulted vakils in reference to making the will
C. A caused drafts of other wills to be prepared of which he did not approve
D. all of them
Ans. D
86. What is electronic form of evidence?
A. means any information of probative value that is either stored or transmitted in electronic form
B. includes computer evidence, digital audio, digital video, cell phones, digital fax machines
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
87. When can it be said that a person commits or attempts to commit a crime?
A. when he intends to commit that particular offence
B. when he, having made preparations and with the intention to commit the offence does an act towards the commission
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
88. When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant which of the following section of the Evidence Act comes into operation?
A. Section 12
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 22
Ans. D
89. Section 32 (1), Indian Evidence Act, has been enacted by the legislature advisedly:
A. as a matter of necessity
B. as an exception to the general rule that, “hearsay evidence” is no evidence and the evidence
C. which cannot be tested by cross – examination of a witness is not admissible in the Court of law
D. all of them
Ans. D
90. District means:
A. The local limits of the jurisdiction of a principal Civil Court of original
B. The local limits of the ordinary original civil jurisdiction of a High Court
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
91. Freedom as to attendance at religions instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 27
B. Article 27(1)
C. Article 28
D. Article 26
Ans. C
92. Articles 29-30 of the Indian Constitution confers which of the following distinct rights?
A. Right of any section of citizens to conserve its own language, script or culture
B. Right to all religious or linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
C. Right of an educational institution not to be discriminated against in the matter of state aid on the ground that it is under management of a minority
D. All of them
Ans. D
93. Which of the following conditions for the applications of clause (1) of Article 30 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. In order to claim the benefit of Article 30 (1), the community must show (i) that it is a religious or linguistic minority and (ii) that the institution was establish by it.
II. If an institution has been brought into being by a minority community it matters not if the funds have been supplied by a single individual or by the community at large, or whether members outside that community are also taking advantage of the institution.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
94. The right to administrator may be said to consist of which of the following rights?
I. To choose it’s managing or governing body.
II. Not to be compelled to refuse admission to students.
III. To use its properties and assets for the benefit of the institution.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
95. An “Idol of Lord Krishna” in a temple is:
(b) A legal person
(c) Not a person in the eye of law because only the priest of the temple will be a person
(d) Not a person because no personality can be conferred on God.
Ans. (b)
96. How does a butterfly taste things:
(a) Wings
(b) Tail
(c) Feet
(d) Mouth.
Ans. (c)
97. Which one of the following is not a feature of ‘Value Added Tax’:
(a) It is a multi-point destination based system of taxation
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production- distribution chain
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer.
(d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government and State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation.
Ans. (c)
98. India is regarded as a country with ‘Demographic Dividend’. This is due to:
(a) its high population in the age group below 15 years
(b) its high population in the age group of 15- 64 years
(c) its high population in the age group of above 65 year
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
99. The national space programme was formally organised in which year;
(a) 1969
(b) 1971
(c) 1972
Ans. (c)
100. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was first formed under:
(a) Department of Space
(b) Department of Nuclear Energy
(c) Department of Atomic Energy
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (c)
101. Which of the following is an ingredient of an offence under Section 120, IPC?
A. Existence of a design to commit an offence, punishable with imprisonment
B. Voluntary concealment of such design by the accused either by act or omission of even by false representation
C. the accused knew or intended to facilitate the commission of such offence
D. all of them
Ans: D
102. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ____ provide for passing of___________ .
A. Does, decree nisi
B. Does not, decree absolute
C. Does not, decree nisi and decree absolute
D. None of the above
Ans: C
103. The existing of cruelty____________ on the magnitude, __________ on the consequence of the offence, actual or apprehended.
A. Depends not merely, but at times also
B. Always depends, and never
C. Cannot depend, but must always depend
D. May depend, but must always depend
Ans: A
104. Which of the following statements hold true under Hanafi law?
A. The wakif can provide for the payments of his personal debts out of the income of the property of wakf
B. The wakif can provide for the payments of his personal debts out of the property of wakf
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: A
105. Sunni law grants right to claim pre-emption to how many classes of people?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Ans: B
106. Which of the followings cannot be regarded as proper persons for the purpose of section 60 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, unless the personal law of the beneficiary allows otherwise?
A. A married women
B. A women
C. Both A and B
Ans: A.
107. Which of the following is the interest rate mentioned under section 23 of the Indian Trust Act, 1882?
A. Six percent per annum simple
B. Six percent per annum compounded half yearly
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
108. The term ‘Scienter is related to which one of the following sign boards?
A. “Tresspassers will be prosecuted”
B. “Beware of dogs”
C. “No parking”
D. “No admission without permission”
Ans: B
109. Which one of the following can be successfully pleaded as a defence in an action for conspiracy?
A. The combination is for creating an equal bargaining capacity
B. The combination is for eliminating monopoly
C. The combination is for protecting one’s arm trade
D. The combination is in accordance with their business policy
Ans: B
110. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lays down grounds on which the relief may be refused to the plaintiff on account of his conduct?
A. s. 16
B. s. 15
C. s. 14
D. None of these
Ans: A
111. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 enables the plaintiff to seek compensation in a suit for specific performance?
A. s. 21
B. s. 19
C. s. 17
D. None of these
Ans: A